2000+ MCQs with Solution For Entry Tests of Physics, Chemistry,Biology,Maths & English.

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1.            Which of these locomotor organs would likely be the shortest ?

(a) A flagellum   (b) A cilium   (c) An extended pseudopod  (d) A pellicle

Hint: Cilia are the shortest locomotors organs.

2.            In order to see various aspects of specimen a three dimensional image of the object can be produced using:

(a) Compound microscope         (b) Dark-field microscope

(c) Transmission electron microscope    (d) Scanning electron microscope

Hint: The most advanced microscope are transmission electron microscope (TEM) and scanning electron microscope (SEM). The magnification power up to 1,000,000 (1 million) times. On the other hand the scanning electron microscope can produce three dimensional image of an object used as specimen.

3.            In saturated fatty acids more hydrogen are not accommodated because of:

(a) Presence of single bonds between carbon atoms

(b) Presence of Double bonds between carbon atoms

(c) Presence of triple bonds between carbon atoms

(d) Absence of bond between carbon atoms

4.            2-FADH₂ can yield energy:

(a) 4 ATP                       (b) 8 ATP

(c) 6 ATP                       (d) 10 ATP

5.            The three non infective genes in HIV are:

(a)gag, pol, rev   (b) gag, pol, vpu

(c) gag, pol, vpr  (d) gag, pol, env

6.            Which one is not a opportunistic disease related to HIV infection.

a)      Destruction of body immune system

b)      Recurrent pneumonia

c)      Pulmonary tuberculosis

d)     Toxoplasmosis

Hint: Destruction of body immune system is not an opportunistic disease related to HIV infection.

7.            If in a situation some bacteria infected by a certain. Phages had somenow developed the ability to make a particular amino acid that was not in their genes before. What would be the possible explanation to this new ability ?

a)      Introduction

b)      Transformation

c)      Transduction

d)     Conjugation

Hint: During transduction some bacteria infected by a certain phages has some how developed the ability to make a particular amino acid that was not in their gene before.

8.            The first organisms that oxygenated the atmosphere:

(a) Cyanobacteria

(b) Photorophic organisms

(c) Anaerobic organisms

(d) All of the above

Hint: Cynobacteria (blue glae) are the phototrophic and anaerobic organisms when oxygenated the atmosphere. Cyanobacteria were involved in the photosynthesis in the early time of earth. Due to their photosynthetic activity. The level of oxygen raised from 1% to 21%.

9.            What event is thought to have contributed to the evolution of eukaryotes ?

(a) Global warming

(b) Glaciation

(c) Volcanic activity

(d) Oxygenation of the atmosphere

Hint: Life on earth for aerobic organisms was impossible in the earths early lie. Because the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere was very low, i.e. about 1% after the evaluation of photosynthetic pigments in cyanobacteria their photosynthetic activity increase and the concentration of oxygen in atmosphere raised to 21%. This event is called oxygenation of atmosphere and have contributed into the evolution of eukaryotes (aerobic organisms).

10.        Rhizobium belongs to:

(a) Beta-protobacteria   

(b) Gama-protobacteria

(c) Alpha-protobacteria 

(d) Delta-protobacteria

Hint: Rhizobium belongs to the sub group alpha proteobacteria. This group includes bacteria which from symbiotic association with their hosts. Rhizobium from symbiotic association with the roots of leguminous plans for the fixation of atmosphere nitrogen (N₂).

11.        Poisonous red-tides in coastal area are caused by the blooms of:

(a) Euglenoids    (b) Rhodophyta          

(c) Diatoms        (d) Dinoflagellates

Hint: In costal areas piosnous and destructive red tides are caused by great population explosions or blooms of dinoflagellates. Such tides change the colour of water to red.

12.        Most conspicuous sea weeds are:

(a) Red algae      (b) Blue algae

(c) Green algae   (d) Brown algae

Hint: Brown algae are most conspicuous seaweeds. They are multicellular and their life cycle is marked by alternation of generation between diploid sporophyte and haploid gametophyte. Helps the largest brown algae is also a conspicuous seaweed.

13.        One of the following statement is true regarding Basidiomycota:

(a) They are most important source of antibiotics

(b) They have known sexual stage

(c) Hyphae fuse to give rise to dikaryotic mycelium

(d) The vast majority of spores are formed asexually

14.        The sprouting gametophyte of a moss consists of a filamentous, branched structure called:

(a) Mycelium                  (b) Hyphae

(c) Protonema                 (d) Bud

Hint: Protonema is a filamentous, branched structure that forms the earliest stage (Haplod phase) in the life chycle of mosses. When a mos first grows from a spore, it grows as a protonema which develops into a leafy gametophore.

15.        Which seedless plant is a renewable source of energy ?

(a) Club mass                 (b) Horsetail

(c) Sphagnum mass        (d) Fern

Hint: Sphagnum moss or peat moss is a renewable source of energy. When peat moss (sphagnum take up and hold large quantities of water. Sphagnum or peat moss is a renewable source of energy because remains of this moss becomes peat which is widely and extensively used as fuel (energy source).

16.        Shagnum is also called as:

(a)Sphenopsida              (b) Peat moss

(c) Club moss     (d) Maiden hair ferns

17.        Double fertilization occurs is:

(a)Pinus                          (b) Ferns

(c) Marchantia                (d) Maize

Hint: Double fertilization is the charactersitics of angiosperms like “maize”.

In double fertilization two sperms zygote or oosphore and the other sperm fuses with endospore mother cell to form fusion nucleus.

18.        Which of the following nutrient is incorrectly paired with its function in plant?

a)      Iron – cytochromes and chlorophyll synthesis

b)      Molybdenum – ell permeability

c)      Cobalt – required by nitrogen fixers

d)     Calcium – formation of cell wall

Hint: Molybdenm (M₀) is involved in nitrogen fixation and nitrate reduction.

19.        Macronutrients are:

(a)K-Mg-N-P     (b) Cu-Mg-Mn-S

(c) Mn-S-P-Cu   (d) Mg-Mn-Ca-P

20.        Which cells are responsible for the movement of sugar as per mass flow hypothesis?

a)      Tracheids, vessel elements

b)      Tracheids, companion cells

c)      Vessel elements, companion cells

d)     Companion cell, sieve-tubes

Hint: Companion cell and sierra tubes are the cells responsible for the movement of sugar as per the pressure flow or mass flow hypothesis.

21.        After buying green bananas or unripe avocadoes, they can be kept in a brown bag to ripen. The hormone reieased by the fruit and trapped in the bag is probably:

a)      Abscisic acid

b)      Cytokinin

c)      Ethylene

d)     Gibberellic acid

Hint: Ethylene a gaseous hormone is involved in fruit ripening.

22.        An acinus is composed of:

(a) 10-20 Acinars                      

(b) 20-40 Acinars

(c) 20-30 Acinars                      

(d) 30-40 Acinars

23.        If a new born baby possesses, carboxy hemoglobin instead of oxhymoglbin, the condition may be;

(a) Embolism      (b) Artherosclensis

(c) Cyanosis       (d) Arteriosclerosis

24.        Of 100 ml of Arterial blood, oxygen provided to the tissues is:

(a) 2 ml               (b) 3 ml

(c) 4 ml               (d) 5 ml

25.        Otitis media is an inflammation of which part of the body?

(a) Brain                         (b) Middle ear

(c) Lungs                        (d) Urinary tract

Hint: Otitis media is an inflammation of the middle ear.

26.        Sarcolemma is the membrane around ?

a)      Bone

b)      Joins

c)      Muscle flber

d)     Heart

Hint: Each muscle fiber is surrounded by a membrane called sarcolemma.

27.        If medulla oblongata of a person brain is damaged which of the following processes will be disturbed?

(a) Thinking        (b) Sleep

(c) Thirst                         (d) Swallowing

Hint: If medulla oblongata of a person brain in damaged special reflexes such as heart beat, respiratory movements salivary secretions, swallowing vomiting, coughing and sneezing processes will be disturbed.

28.        Nervous system that prepares itself fight of flight:

(a) Para Sympathetic (b) Sympathetic

(c) Somatic         (d) Peripheral

29.        In which of the following disorder the structure and function of normal spinal cord is damaged?

(a) Arthritis        (b) Sciatica

(c) Spondyiosis  (d)

Hint: Menigitis in characterized by inflammation of the protective membranous covering of the brain and spinal cord the meanings.

30.        The deficiency of calcitonin result in ?

a)      Bone formation

b)      Kidney stone

c)      Hyperthyroidism

d)     Hypothyroidism

31.        Acetabularia mediterranea is:

(a) A fungus                  

 (b) An algae

(c) A protozoan             

(d) A prokaryote

32.        Implantation of embryo takes place in which week of pregnancy?

(a) 1^st        (b) 2^nd (c) 3^rd    (d) 4^th

Hint: Implantation takes place in the second week of pregnancy.

33.        In a mating between two individuals that are heterozygous for a recessive lethal allele. What genotypic ratio (homozygous domiant: heterozygours: homozygous recessive) would you expect to observe in the offspring?

(a) 1:2:1                          (b) 3:1:1

(c) 1:2:0              (d) 0:2:1

34.        If black and white true breeding mice are mated and the result is all gray offspring, what inheritance pattern would this be indicative of?

(a) Dominance    (b) Codominance

(c) Multiple Alleles

(d) Incomplete Dominance

35.        ABO blood groups are an example of:

(a) Multiple alleles and incomplete dominance

(b) Codominance and incomplete dominance

(c) Incomplete dominance only

(d) Multiple alleles and condominance

36.        XX-XY types of sex determination pattern is present in which of the following organisms?

(a) When 1A moves through a voltage of 1V

(b) When a power of 1 W is used for 1 s

(c) When the current

37.        The experiments by Hershey and Chase helped confirm that DNA was the hereditary material on the basis of the finding that:

a)      Radioactive phage were found in the pellet

b)      Radioactive phage were found in the supernatant

c)      Radioactive sulfur was found inside the cell

d)     Radioactive phosphorus was found in the cell

Hint: Radioactive phosphorus was found in the cell show that DNA act a a hereditary material.

38.        DNA polymerase adds nucleotide .to the 3’ end of the primer so the direction of replication will be ?

(a)            (b)

(c) end of the primer to end of template strand

(d) end of template strand to the end of the primer

Hint: DNA polymerase III cannot initiates replication process it can add a nucleotide on to a preexisting 3-OH group and therefore needs a primer to perform its polymerase activity. It always adds nucleotide at 3 end of primer so the direction of replicatiob becomes 5 to 3 end.

39.        How many nucleotides are 12 mRNA codons?

a)      12

b)      24

c)      36

d)     48

Hunt: Single genetic code is consist of 3 nucletiodes so mRNA contains 12 codon have 36 nucleotides.

40.        Which of the following is a non-sense codon?

a)      UGA

b)      UAU

c)      CAU

d)     GAU

Hint: UGA VAA and UAG are non sense codon or stop codon.

41.        If a disorder is not present in a  child family but the fetus itself is infected before birth,it is known as?

a)      Somatic mutation

b)      Hereditary mutation

c)      Germ line mutation

d)     De novo mutation

Hint: Mutation that occur only in an egg or sperm cell or those that occur just after fertilization called new mutation or de novo mutation.

42.        What will happen if a nucleotide is deleted from a gene having 9 nucleotides in its transcriptional unit?

a)      Change in phenotype

b)      No change in phenotype

c)      Synthesis of 3 amino acids

d)     Synthesis of 4 amino acids

Hint: Change occur in phenotype when a nucleotide in deleted from a gene having 9 nucleotides in its inscriptional unit.

43.        Identify the mismatch pair in the following.

a)      A) Cyanobacteria- primary producer

b)      Grasshopper-primary consumer

c)      Fungi-decomoposer

d)     Zooplankton-secondary consumer

Hint: Zooplankton are primary consumer.

44.        Which of the following is a suitable vector to be incorporated with a large external DNA fragment?

a)      Small size vector

b)      Large size vector

c)      Large size vector with no origin of replication

d)     Small size vector with no origin of replication

Hint: When origin of replication is mission bacteria cannot increase the number of its plasmid copies.

45.        If one of the following component is missing bacteria can not increase the number of its plasmid copies ?

a)      Antibiotic resistant gene

b)      Origin of replication

c)      Cloning site

d)     Ligases enzymes

Hint: When origin of replication is missing bacteria cannot increase the number of its plasmid copies.

46.        Identify in which of the following the genetic information is catalyzed using reverse transciptase ?

a)      Protein → DNA

b)      RNA → DNA

c)      DNA → RNA

d)     RNA → Protein

Hint: RNA is converted to DNA by reverse transcriptase.

47.        What will happen if a vector (plasmid) is cut with a different restriction enzyme which cuts the external DNA to be incorporated in the vector (plasmid) ?

a)      Ligation

b)      No ligation

c)      Tight ligation

d)     Cloning

Hint: No ligatin will happen if a vector (plasmid) is cut with a different retraction enzyme which cuts the external DNA to be incorporated in the vector (plasmid).

48.        If the primer annealing temperature is increased to 94 . What will happen?

a)      Annealing

b)       Extension

c)      No annealing

d)     Primer-dimer formation   

Hint: If the primer annealing temperature is increased to 94⁰C No anneling will occur because annealing process need 54⁰C to 2 minute.

49.        For the location/detection of a gene in a DNA library which of the following is used?

a)      Primer

b)      Probe

c)      Restrictionn enzyme

d)     Taq polymerase

Hint: Probe is used for the location and detection of a gene in a DNA library.

50.        Under UV illumination , DNA bands are seen in agarose due to which of the following ?

a)      Agarose

b)      Charge of DNA

c)      Fluorescent dye

d)     Radioactive dye

Hint: Under UV illuminator DNA bands are seenin agarose geldue fluorescent dye.

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