1000 biology MCQs chapterwise kp course

Contents

1.	Chapter no.1 the cell
2.	Which statement is incorrect? (a) TEM magnify objects up to Indian time (b) TEM produces two dimensional structures (c) SEM produce three dimensional structures (d) IEM produces three dimensional structures	D
3.	Starch is stained by a) Aniline sulphate b) Aniline blue (c) Borax carmine (d) iodine solution	D
4.	The technique uses for the separation of molecules having different electrical charge (a) Electrophoresis (b) Spectrophotometry (c) Micro dissection (d)Chromatography	A
5.	The cell walls of neighbour cells are held together by: (a) Primary cell wall (b) Secondary cell wall (c) Middle lamella d) Plasma membrane	C
6.	Primary cell wall is composed of (a) Monosaccharide (a) Disaccharide (c) Oligosaccharide (a) Polysaccharide	D
7.	Pectin is found in: (a) Primary wall b) Secondary wall (c) Middle lamella d. All of these	A
8.	Plant cell wall is (a) Semi-permeable (b) Permeable c) Selectively permeable (d) Both a and	B
9.	Which one is more thicker in diameter (a) Primary cell wall (b) Middle Lamella c) Secondary cell wall d) Botha and	C
10.	Which molecule is present abundantly in cell wall: (a) Protein (b)Lipid (c) Carbohydrate (d) Phospholipid	C
11.	Fluid mosaic model was proposed by (a) Singer and Nicolson (b) Watson and Crick (c) Sheldon and Schwann (d) Mendel	A
12.	In 1959 Robertson proposed (a) Two layers of lipid molecules (b) Lipid bilayer and protein pores (c) Unit membrane (d) Fluid mosaic model	C
13.	In industries cell wall is used as: (a) Nitrocellulose (b) Rayan (c) Paper making (d) All of these	D
14.	Integral protein regulate which of the following (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis. C) active transport d) all of these	D
15.	Which two components form the protoplasm: (a) Cell wall and nucleus (b) Cell wall and cytoplasm (c) Nucleus and cytoplasm (d) Cell wall and plasma membrane	C
16.	Golgi bodies orginate from: a) Plastids (b) Mitochondria (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Ribosomes	C
17.	Which is present nearest to plasma membrane in plant cell? (a) Secondary wall (b) Primary wall (c) Middle Lamella (d) Tonoplast	A
18.	All cell contains (a) Mitochondria (b) Golgi bodies (c) Chloroplast (d) Ribosomes	D
19.	DNA could be found in: (a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria (c) Nucleus (d) All of these	D
20.	Mitochondria is a semi-autonomous organelle because it contains (a) Proteins (b) DNA+RNA (c) DNA, RNA and ribosomes (d) RNA and ribosomes	C
21.	In ribosomes letter "s" signifies: (a) Sedimentation (b) Coefficient (c) Svedberg constant (d) Both a and b	C
22.	Which is incorrect in relation to lysosomes? (a) They contain acid hydrolases (b) They are autophagic (C) They can digest proteins, nucleic acids and lipids (d) They are monomorphic	D
23.	The resolving power of light microscope is 250 nm, which is about times of human eye: (a) 500X (b) 1000 X (C) 10000X (d) 100000 X	A
24.	If a microscopy has objective lens of 40X and Eye piece of 10X, what will be it magnification power: (a) 400X (b)40X (c) 10X (d) 4000X	A
25.	Which stain is used to stain DNA particularly in cell division: (a) leishman's division (b) Fuelgen's stain (C) Schultz stain d) Gram stain	B
26.	How much time is required for spinning a homogenate tissue mixture to isolate mitochondria: a. 10 min (b) 25 min (C) 35 min (d) 1 hr	D
27.	Which of the following plant hormone is not used in tissue culture: (a) Gibberellin (b) Auxin (c) Cytokinins (d) Abscisic Acid	D
28.	Which of the following medium is used in paper chromatography: (a) Silica layer (b) Paper (c) Glass tube (d) Both a and b	D
29.	In Electrophoresis, the proportion b/w amount of charge and movement of molecules is: (a) Directly (b) Inversely (c) Sometimes directly (d) All of above	A
30.	The width of plasma membrane is: (a) 7nm (b) 3nm (c) 5nm (d) Inm	A
31.	All of the following is less or more present in cytoplasm except: (a) RNA (b) Enzyme (c) Inorganic salts (d) DNA	D
32.	Which of the following is the function of SER (a) Detoxification (b) Transmission of nerve impulse (c) Lipid synthesis (d) All are correct	D
33.	The ribosomes are attached to mRNA via: (a) Na (b) Mg (c) K (d) None	C
34.	All of the following are functions of Golgi complex except: (a) Synthesis of enzyme (b) Transport of vesicle (C) Lipid metabolism (d) Storing of molecules	C
35.	Which of these molecule is accumulated in the brain in Tay-Sach disease: (a) Lipids (b) Protein (c) Glycogen (d) None of these	A
36.	The size of micro bodies or peroxisomes is: (a) 0.5p (b) 0.3pm (c) 0.1m (d) All	A
37.	All of the following are related to cell theory except (a) living organisms are made of one or more cells (b) New cell arise from pre-existing cell (c) Tissue is the building blocks of complex cell (d) Metabolic processes take place inside the cell	Dc
38.	The resolving power of light microscope is: (a) 1500nm (b) 250nm (c) 500nm (d) 1000nm	B
39.	The site of protein synthesis is: (a) Golgi bodies (b) Lysosome (c) RER (d) SER	C
40.	Which one is correct about chromoplasts: (a) Present in petals of flower (b) In fruits (c) Colours other than green (d) All of these	D
41.	When ribosomal RNA is synthesized it is stored in: (a) Chromosome (c) Nuclear membrane (b) Nucleolus (d) None of these	C
42.	Which one of the following organelle is involved in photo-respiration? (a) Glyoxysome (b) Lysosome (c) Peroxisome (d) All of these	D
43.	Hydrogen peroxide is converted into oxygen and water by (a) Glyoxysome (b) Lysosome (c) Peroxisome (d) All of these	C
44.	Cytoskeleton was discovered by in 1928. (a) Cohen (b) Koltzoff (c) Robert brown (d) Palade	B
45.	The centrioles are 0.3 to 0.5 m long and their diameter is about: (a) 0.5 m (b) 0.2m (c) 0.8m (d) 0. 6m	B
46.	Which one of the following is non membranous cell organelles? (a) Centriole (b) Ribosome (c) Nucleus (d) Both a and b	D
47.	Which one of the following is single membranous cell organelles? (a) Lysosome (b) Peroxisome (c) Glyoxysome (d) All of these	D
48.	Undifferentiated cells such as egg have about pores per nucleus. (a) 3-4 b.30000 C) 50 (d) 100	B
49.	One granum consists of thylakoid piled. (a) 100 (b) 50 (0) 150 (d) 200	B
50.	The genetic material or hereditary material of bacteria consist of? (a) Two circle and double stranded DNA molecules (b) Single circular and double stranded DNA molecules (c) Three circular and double stranded DNA molecules (d) Four circular and double stranded DNA molecule	B
51.	Outer membrane of nucleus is continuous with a. SER b. RER c. golgi bodies d. ribosomes	B
52.	2. BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES
53.	Those molecules which are present in the body of living organisms are called: (a) Inorganic Compounds b) Organic Compounds (c) Bio-Molecules (d) Both a and c	C
54.	The most abundant organic bio-molecule in a bacterial cell is: (a) Carbohydrates (c) Water (c) Proteins (d) Nucleic Acids	C
55.	The chemical composition of carbohydrate in mammalian cell is: (a) More than bacterial cell (b) Equal to bacterial cell (c) Less than bacterial cell (d) Carbohydrate are absent in bacteria	A
56.	Which one is the type of reaction in which water is removed? (a) Condensation b) Hydrolysis (c) Anabolism (d) Botha and c	D
57.	The functional group present in fructose is: (a) Ketonic Group (b) Aldehyde Group (c) Carboxylic Group (d) Hydroxyl Group	A
58.	Which enzyme will catalyze the reaction when sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose? (a) Cellulase (b) Sucrase (c) Polymarase (d) Hydrolase	B
59.	Which of the following group is attached to the polymer which is present in the exoskeleton of arthropods? (a) NH₂ (b) Sulphur (c) Calcium (d) COOH	A
60.	If hydrogen bond is absent in water molecule then its boiling point will be: (a) 80°C (b)-80°C (C) 100°C (d)-100°C	B
61.	Sucrose is a: (a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide (c) Oligosaccharide (d) Polysaccharide	B
62.	Carbohydrates.component of nucleic acid is: a.hexose b. pentose (c) Heptose (d) Triose	B
63.	A DNA template was found to contain 29% of adenine bases. The percent of Thymine will be: (a) 58 (b) 42 (c)21 (d) 29	D
64.	In DNA guanine is 10%. The content of Cytocine is: (a) 80% (b) 40% (c) 71% (d) 10%	D
65.	Triose keto sugar is: (a) Glyceraldehyde (b) Dihydroxyacetone c. fructose (d) Mannose	B
66.	The most abundant disaccharide in nature is: a) Sucrose (b) Maltose (c) Lactose (d) None of these	A
67.	Which of the following make more then 95% of human body by mass: a) O, N and P (b) C, H, and O (c)C , H. and N (d) N, C. and O	B
68.	The bond that makes back bone of organic compounds is: (4)C-N bond (b)C-C bond (c)C-O bond (d) All of these	B
69.	What is the percentage of protein in dry mass of cell (Prokaryotes) (a) 50% (b) 15% (c) 30% (d) 18%	D
70.	Which compound/molecules has the same ratio in mammalian as well as in bacterial cell: (a) Water (b) Inorganic ion (c) Organic compounds (d) All of these	D
71.	The 2^nd most abundant organic compound in protoplasm is: (a) Proteins (b) Lipid (c) Carbohydrates (d) All of these these	C
72.	If hydrogen bond is removed from water, the freezing point of water will be: (a) 0°C (b)-4°C (c)-80°C (d)-100°C	D
73.	The most abundant carbohydrate in nature is: (a) Cellulose (b) Starch (c) Glycogen (d) All of these	A
74.	Which of the following carbohydrates has an additional amino group attached to it: (a) Chitin (b) Murien (c) Glycoprotein (d) Both a and b	A
75.	How many peptide bonds are there in insulin A)29 B)49 C)50 D)51	B
76.	In sickle cell anemia which amino Acid is replaced with valine? (a) Glutamic acid (b) Valine (c) Glucine (d) Both a and b	A
77.	Antibodies are specialized proteins, which structural level do antibodies have: (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) Quaternary	D
78.	Human body breaks beta-carotene to produce 2 molecules: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D (c) Vitamin B2 (d) All of these	A
79.	Which of the following Phytohormone is lipid (a) Auxins (b) Gibberellins (c) Cytokines d) All of these	D
80.	Glycolipids are important conjugating molecules mainly present in: (a) Brain (b) Plasma Membrane (c) Liver (d) Both a and b	B
81.	Which one of the following have methyl group? (a) Adenosine (b) Guanine (c) Thymine (d) Gytosine	B
82.	All of the following are co-enzyme except: (a) NAD (b) FAD (c) NADP (d) ATP	C
83.	Water in most heavy at: (a) At 4 °C (b) Below 4 °C (c) Above 4 °C (d) At all temperatures	D
84.	Characteristics of monosaccharides are: (a) Soluble in water (b) Sweet in taste (c) Empirical formula is (CH2O) (d) All of these	A
85.	Monosaccharides consists of carbon atoms (a) 2-7 (b) 100 (c) 200 (d) 3-7	D
86.	Which one of the following is pentose sugar?. (a) Ribose Sugar (b) Deoxyribose Sugar (c) RUBP (d) All of these	D
87.	Which one of the following is considered to be hexoses? (a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Galactose (d) All of these	D
88.	Which one of the following is the example of disaccharide? (a) Sucrose (b) Lactose (c) Maltose (d) All of these	D
89.	Lactose on hydrolysis give rise to: (a) Glucose + Fructose (b) Glucose + Galactose (c) Glucose + Glucose (d) Glyceraldehyde	B
90.	Grapes contain as much as Glucose. (a) 60% (b) 70 % (c) 80% (d) 27 %	D
91.	Which one of the following is aromatic R groups amino acids? (a) Phenylalanine (b) Tyrosine (c) Tryptophan (d) All of these	D
92.	A chain with amino acids and three peptide bonds is called tripeptide. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6	A
93.	Bodies of living organisms contain % of water. (a) 20% (b) 50% (c) 60% (d) 70% to 90%.	D
94.	Chapter no.3 Enzymes
95.	The nature of biological catalyst is (a) Protein (b) Lipid (c) Carbohydrate (d) Nucleic acid	A
96.	The part of enzyme where reaction takes place is called: (a) Substrate (b) Coenzyme (c) Active Site (d) None of these	C
97.	How many reactions are catalyzed by a specific enzyme? (a) Only one (b) Two reactions (c) Many reactions (d) No reaction	A
98.	Lock and key hypothesis was proposed by Fischer in: (a) 1790 (b) 1890 (c) 1990 (d) 1999	B
99.	The amount of energy required to start a reaction is called: (a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Activation energy (d) None of these	C
100.	Co-enzymes are derived from: (a) Vitamins (b) Minerals (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
101.	Cofactor may be: (a) Organic (b) Inorganic (c) Metalic lons (d) All of these	D
102.	Beriberi is caused due to the lack of: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K	B
103.	Which one of the following is a co-enzyme? (a) NAD (b) FAD (C) NADP (d) All of these	D
104.	Non-protein organic part of enzyme is called: a) Co-enzyme (b) Holoenzyme (c) Prosthetic group (d) All of these	A
105.	Apoenzyme is: (a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrate (c) Vitamin (d) Amino acid	A
106.	a substance unrelated to the substance that reversible changes the activity of an enzyme by binding at a site other than active site is known as: a) competitive inhibitor (b) catalytic inhibitor c) allosteric inhibitor (d) catalytic inhibitor	C
107.	Lock and key o theoy was suggested by a)emilfisher (b) Koshland (c) Anselme Payen (d) Eduard Buchner	A
108.	The optimum pH for urease is: (a) 15-16 (b) 2 (c)4.5 (d) 7	D
109.	All enzymes are proteins except: (a) Ribozyme (b) Lysozyme (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
110.	Lock and key model was rejected by: (a) E. Fischer (b) D. Koshland (c) Fedrick (d) R. Mortin	B
111.	The structure of enzyme must go a slightly change is the statement of: (a) Key- Lock Model (b) Hand-Gloves Model (c) Induced --Fit Model (d) Both b and c	D
112.	(2H O 2H,O+ O:) For the given reaction activation energy is 86 kJ/mol with no catalyst.What will be the Ex required if same reaction is performed in presence of enzyme? (c) 86 kJ/mol (b) 8.6kJ/mol (c) None of these (d) Ikg/mol	D
113.	Vitamin B acts as co-enzymes. What will happen if Vitamin B is reduced / missing in a body? (a) No-effect (b) Metabolism is effected (c) Beri-beri is produced (d) Both b and c	C
114.	Peptidase and esterase both belong to: (a) Hydrolase (b) Isomerase (c) Transferase (d) Both a and b	A
115.	The optimum temperature for snow flea is: (a) 37°C (b) 0°C (c) 10°C d. -10⁰C	D
116.	What will happen to enzyme activity, if temperature becomes 0°C: (a) Activity will be zero (b) Minimum (c) No effect (d) Enzyme will be denatured	B
117.	What is physiological pH for most of enzymes: (a) 7-8 (b) 1 - 3 (C) 5-7 (d) 1 - 14	A
118.	Which of the following acts as non- competitive inhibitors: (a) Cyanides (b) Heavy-metal ions c)Insecticides (d) All of these	D
119.	The non-competitive inhibitors binds with: (a) Active of enzyme (b) Receptor site (c) Allosteric site (d) Both b and e	D
120.	The optimum pH value for pepsin to work in is: (a) 6.8 (b) 5.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 2	D
121.	The enzyme of the arctic snow flea works at: (a) 60°C (b) 30°C (c) 40°C (d)-10°C	D
122.	Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of enzyme action: (a) Enzyme concentration (b) Light intensity (c) Substrate concentration (d) Temperature	B
123.	The suffix which is added to substance to name of an enzyme: (a) lce (b) Ace (c) Ise (d) Ase	D
124.	The enzyme decarboxylase, deaminases and synthases are examples of: (a) Hydrolase (b) Lyases (c) Ligases (d) Isomerases	b
125.	All enzymes are protein except: (a) Ribozyme (b) Lysozyme (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
126.	The structure of enzyme must go a slightly change is the statement of: (a) Key-lock Model (b) Hand-gloves Model (c) Induced -fit Model (d) Both b and c	C
127.	Peptidase and esterase both belong to: (a) Hydrolase (b) Isomerase (c) Transferase (d) Both a and b	A
128.	At very high temperature enzyme loses its catalytic activity due to: (a) Loss of active site (b) Denaturation (c) Prosthetic (d) Saturation with substrate.	B
129.	Study about enzyme is called: (a) Mycology (b) Phycology (c) Enzymology (d) Ornithology	C
130.	The example of oxidoreductase are: (a) Oxidase (b) Peroxidase (c) Oxygenase (d) All of these	D
131.	________catalyze bond formation between two substrate molecules. (a) Isomerase (b) Hydrolase (c) Ligase (d) Lyases	C
132.	What is the pH of urease and catalase? (a) 8 (b) 6.1-6.8 (c) 7 (d) 4-5	C
133.	The example of competitive inhibitor is: (a) Cyanide (b) Heavy Metals (c) Insecticides (d) Sulphonamide	D
134.	Co-enzymes are attached to enzymes by bond. (a) Covalent bond (b) Ionic bond (c) Coordinate covalent bond (d) Weak bond	D
135.	What are the characteristics of enzymes? (a) Protein in nature except ribozymes (Ribosome) (b) Do not alter the equilibrium of a reaction (c) Globular in nature and lower the activation energy (d) All of these	D
136.	As the enzyme concentration increases the rate of the reaction linearly. (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) Does not affect rate (d) None of these	B
137.	Sometimes enzymes and substrate are held together by the kind of bonds called: (a) Ionic (b) Hydrogen (c) Hydrophobic (d) Covalent.	D
138.	Chapter no.4 bioenergetics
139.	Which product is produced when glysine is converted to serine? (a) Glucose (b) Carbon dioxide (c) Oxygen (d) Hydrogen	B
140.	In C4 photosynthesis the first formed product is: (a) Oxaloacetate (b) PGA (c) 4-carbon compound (d) Both a and c	D
141.	Which enzyme is used for the fixation of carbon dioxide in C4 photosynthesis? (a) Rubisco (b) Pepco (c) RuBP (d) All of these	B
142.	Number of ATPs produced from one NADH is: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c)3 d) 4	C
143.	Number of ATPs produced from FADH is: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4	B
144.	Bioenergetics is the study of energy transformation in (a) Non living thing (b) Atmosphere (c) Biological system (d) All of these	C
145.	Which one is the ultimate source of energy for living organisms? (a) Petrol (b) Diesel (c) CNG (d) Sunlighta	d
146.	Which one of the following process is exergonic and destructive process? (a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	A
147.	About …… of the total of sunlight that enters our atmosphere reaches the earth surface (a) 10% (b) 20 % (c) 30% ( d) 40 %	D
148.	Chlorophyll is a complex organic compound which absorbs mainly and portion of sunlight. (a) Blue and green (b) Red and green (c) Blue and red (d) Green and yellow	C
149.	The formula of chlorophyll-a is: (a) C₅₅H₇₂O₅N₄Mg (b) C₅₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg (c) C₅₅H₇₈O₆N₄Mg (d) C₃₅H₇₀O₆N₄Mg	A
150.	In C₄ plant synthesis of sugar occurs in: (a) Mesophyll cell (b) Bundle sheath cells (c) Spongy parenchyma cells (d) Palisade parenchyma cells	B
151.	The number of carbon atoms present in ribulose biphosphate is:. (a) 6 (b) 5 (c)4 (d) 3	B
152.	Cyclic photophosphorylation releases: (a) ATP and NADPH₂ (b) ATP, O₂ and NADPH₂ (C) ATP (d) NADPH₂ and O₂	C
153.	In the dark reaction of photosynthesis: (a) PGAL is formed (b) CO; is fixed (C) ATP is consume (d) All of these	D
154.	Carbon dioxide is more abundant in (a) Stroma (b) Thylakoid (C) Both of these (d) None of these	A
155.	Which of these is hydrophilic? (a) Porphyrin (b) Phytol (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
156.	Which part of plant capture light energy: (a) Mesophyll Cell (b) Plastid (c) Chloroplast (d) All of these	D
157.	The presence of free oxygen made possible the evolution of: (a) Respiration (b) Photorespiration (c) Both b and a (d) None of these	A
158.	Which part of chlorophyll contain Mg (a) Porphyrin (b) Pyrrole rings (c) Haem portion (d) All of these	A
159.	Which statement best define Bioenergetics: (a) Reaction or processes that require energy and then store it (b) Reaction which release energy (c) The anabolic process in living cells (d) Process by means of which living cells store use and release energy	D
160.	The curved - symbol in ATP indicate P-P-P: (a) Low Energy bond (b) High Energy bond (c) Unstable bond (d) Both b and c	D
161.	During photosynthesis oxygen come out from water was confirmed using IN isotopes of oxygen by: (a) C.B Von Neil (b) Robin Hill (c) R. Scarisbrick (d) Samuel Rubin	B
162.	Thylakoids membranes containing chlorophyll are involved in the synthesis of ATP by the process of: (a) Photosynthesis (b) Chemosynthesis (c) Chemiosmosis (d) Osmosis	C
163.	What does not occur in the light reaction? (a) Photolysis (b) Photophosphorylation. (c) Oxidation of water (d) Reduction of CO₂	D
164.	The total photosynthesis including the food consumed by the producer is: (a) Productivity (b) Primary productivity (c) Gross primary productivity (d) Net primary productivity	C
165.	A photo system contains (a) ADP+Chlorophyll "b" (b) Photon (c) Light+Chlorophyll "a" (d) Pigment or light capturing Antenna + reaction center + electron acceptor	D
166.	How many ATP molecules are synthesized and released as a result of substance level phosphorylation: (a) 2 ATP (b) 4 ATP (c) 6 ATP (d) 36 ATP	B
167.	Which of the following is not source of CO2? (a) The burning of fuel (b) Photosynthesis (c) The decomposition of animal matter (d) Respiration	B
168.	Which is least important in photosynthesis? (a) Sunlight (b) Green light c) Blue light (d) Red light	B
169.	60% of the world's photosynthesis is carried out by: (a) Monocots (b) Gymnosperms (c) Angiosperms (d) Algae	D
170.	The rate of photosynthesis in independent of: (a) Light intensity (b) Duration of light (c) Light quality (d) Temperature	B
171.	How many ATP produced in cellular respiration is a result of oxidative phosphorylation? (a) A maximum of 32 (b) A maximum of 36 (c) A maximum of 38 (d) A maximum of 4 ATP	A
172.	The light independent reactions occur in: (a) Grana (b) Stroma (c) Cytoplasm (d) Outer layer of chlorophyll	B
173.	During photosynthesis green plants capture light energy and converts it into: (a) Heat energy (b) Chemical energy (c) Mechanical energy (d) All of these	B
174.	Which pigment do not belong to caratenoid? (a) Green (b) Yellow (c) Red (d) Orange	A
175.	By the process of photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted into: (a) Monosaccharide (b) Disaccharide (c) Polysaccharide (d) Polysaccharide	A
176.	Which one is a correct statement? (a) Short wavelengths are less energetic (b) Long wavelengths are more energetic (c) Short wavelengths are more energetic (d) All are correct	C
177.	The light dependent reactions occur in: (a) Grana (b) Stroma (c) Cytoplasm (d) Outer layer of chlorophyll!	D
178.	Number of phosphates in one ATP are: (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3	C
179.	Visible light range is: (a) 360-760 nm (b) 390-790 nm (c) 390-760 nm (d) 390-860 nm	D
180.	Chlorophyll absorbs wavelength of: (a) 390 - 430 nm (b)390-760 nm (c) 670 - 700 nm (d) Both a and c	B
181.	The wavelength absorbed by carotenoids ranges in between: (a 400-500 nm (b) 500-600 nm (C) 600-700 nm (d) All of these	B
182.	Antenna complex contains: (a) Chlorophyll A (b) Chlorophyll B (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
183.	In non-cyclic electron transport chain of light reaction the first electron acceptor is (a) PQ (b) cyt "b" (c) cyt "f (d) PC	D
184.	Which one is not an electron acceptor of photosystem II: (a) PQ (b) cyt (c) PC (d) Fd	C
185.	The product of light reaction is: (a) ATP (b) NADPH (c) Both a and b (d) None of these.	B
186.	Chapter no.5 A cellular life
187.	RNA particles causing symptoms like that of a virus disease is known as: (a) Virion (b) Viroids (c) HIV (d) Prion	B
188.	Incubation period for polio virus is: (a) 5-35 days (b) 7-14 days (e) 3-4 days (d) 1-2 days	A
189.	Phages which show lysogenic life cycle are known as (a) Lytic phages (b) Temperate phages (c) Virulent phages (d) None of these	B
190.	The HIV primarily inſects: (a) Plasma cells (b) Helper T-cell (c) All white blood cells (d) Red blood cell	B
191.	Herpes virus type 1 causes: (a) Cold Sore (b) Pneumonia (c) Genital Herpes (d) AIDs	A
192.	Which of the following disease is caused by viroids? (a) Hepatitis D (b) Hepatitis B (c) PSTV (d) All of these	A
193.	PSTVD is composed of: (a) RNA only (b) DNA only (c) Either DNA or RNA (d) None of these	A
194.	All are caused by viroids except: (a) Cucumber pale fruit (b) Citrus exocortis disease C) Cadang cadang (d) Leaf curl disease	d
195.	The first viroid discovered was: a) CErd (b) PSTVD (c) HDrd (d) None of these	B
196.	All are symptoms of Alper's syndrome except: (a) Paralysis (b) Dementia (c) Loss of Motor Control (d) Dilusion	D
197.	Fatal Familial Insomnia is caused by: (a) FIV (b) Visna (c) FFI (d) Prions	D
198.	Begomoviruses causes leaf curl disease, which is transmitted by white fly named: (a) Bemisia Tabaci (b) Tsetse Fly (c) Both of these (d) Aedes aegypti	A
199.	The treatment given to poliomyelitis patient is: (a) Corrective shoes and braces (b) Physiotheraphy (c) Orthopedic surgery (d) All of these	D
200.	Common symptoms for HERPES is: (a) Fever (b) Inflammation (c) Blister (d) All of these	D
201.	Which of the following can lead to liver cancer? (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) Hepatitis C (d) Botha anda	B
202.	All of these are RNA virus except: (a) Hepatitis B (b) Influenza (c) Visna (d) Both a and	A
203.	The development of Aids from HIV infection takes (a) 2-10 days (b) 2-10 months (c)2-10 years (d) 2-10 hours	C
204.	HIV is also called: (a) Retro Virus (b) Onco Virus (c) Lenti Virus (d) All of these	D
205.	The last stage of HIV infection: (a) AIDS (b) Cancer (c) Death (d) All of these	A
206.	The glycoprotein found in envelope of u virus is (a) Hemagglutinin (b) Neuraminidase (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
207.	How many gens are there in HIV? (a) 9 (b) 500 (c) 9000 (d) 20000	A
208.	Flu virus is: (a) RNA Enveloped (b) RNA non-enveloped (c) DNA Enveloped (d) DNA non-enveloped	A
209.	All of these are lentivirus except: (a) Visna (b) HBV (c) HIV (d) CAEV	B
210.	How many spikes are found in HIV envelope? (a) 72 (b) 32 (c)42 (d) 120	A
211.	The enzyme found in HIV is: (a) Reverse Transcriptase (b) Integrase (c) Protease (d) All of these	D
212.	Which of the following is present in all Bacteriophages? (a) Tail fibers (b) Protein coat (c) Lysozyme (d) All are present	D
213.	All of the following diseases are caused by the virus except: (a) Measles (b) Polio (c) Hepatitis D (d) SARS	C
214.	The enzyme found in HIV is:. (a) Reverse transcriptase (b) Integrate (c) Protease (d) All of these	C
215.	The lysogenic cycle is caused by (a) T2 Phage (b) T4 Phage (c) PI Phage d) Both a and b	D
216.	The cape of spike consists of protein (a) P17 (b) P24 (C) P 41 (d) gP120	D
217.	Which one of the following lentivirus causes encephalitis and pneumonitis in sheep? (a)Fiv (b) Bovine (c) CAEV (d) Visna	D
218.	The gene of HIV which is responsible for the synthesis of structure protein is: (a)4 (b) 2 (c)3 (d) 7	C
219.	Which one of the following gene pair is involed in the synthesis of structural protein? (a) TAT, REV, GAG (b) VPR, VPU, NEF (C) VIP. GAG, POL (d) GAG, POL, ENV	D
220.	Incubation period of FLU virus is: (a) 5-6 Days (b) 8-10 Days (c) 1-2 Days (d) 9-12 Days	C
221.	HIV target which body cell: (a) Plasma Cells (b) Memory Cells (C) T-Lymphocytes (d) All of these	C
222.	The tail of spike consists of protein (a) P17 (b) P24 (c) gP 41 (d) gP120	C
223.	The most common sexually transmitted disease in the world is: (a) AIDS (b) Cancer (c) Hepatitis B (d) Hepatitis C	C
224.	Which one of the following hepatitis is transmitted by infected faeces? (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) Hepatitis C (d) Hepatitis D	A
225.	All of the following are RNA virus except: (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) Hepatitis C (d) Hepatitis D	B
226.	Incubation period of hepatitis A virus is: (a) 20 weeks (b) 26 weeks (C) 2-6 weeks (d) 9 weeks	C
227.	The incubation period of which one hepatitis virus is 2-26 weeks? (a) Hepatitis A (b) Hepatitis B (c) Hepatitis C (d) Hepatitis D	C
228.	Cold sores are usually caused by: (a) HIV 1 (b) HIV2 (c) HSV 2 (d) HSVI	D
229.	The viral core or capsid is usually bullet shaped and is made from the protein: (a) gp120 (b) gp41 (C)p24 (D) p17.	C
230.	The incubation period of HIV is: (a) 8 - 10 years (b) 2 years (c) 1 year (d) 6 months	A
231.	Which body system is most directly concerned with vaccination? (a) Digestive (b) Circulatory (c) Respiratory (d) Immune	D
232.	What are the two major envelope proteins that surrounds the HIV virion? (a) gp120 and gp 40 (b) gp120 and 41 (c) gp120 and gp 42 (d) gp120 and 43	B
233.	Which of these characteristics of living things is exhibited by a virus? (a) Heredity (b) Metabolism (c) Response to Stimulus (d) Interaction with the Environment	A
234.	Of the following antibiotics which is most effective against most viral infection: (a) Penicillin (b) Erythromycin (c) Zanax (d) None of these	D
235.	Scrapie is the neurodegenerative disease of sheep and goat caused by: (a) Viroid (b) Virion (c) Prion (d) Virus	C
236.	Polio virus enters through the: (a) Mouth and nose (b) Eyes and ear (c) Reproductive organs (d) All of these	A
237.	The scientific name of white fly is: (a) Enterobius vermicularis (b) Taenia Solium (c) Bemisia Tabaci (d) None of these	C
238.	Which one of the following is DNA containing virus? (a) HBV (b) HAV (c) HCV (d) HDV.	A
239.	Chap No.6 Prokaryotes
240.	How many species of prokaryotes are biologically named? (a) 500 (b) 6300 (c) 1630 (d) 6500	B
241.	The prokaryotes were actually a domain, who was the spearhead of this study? (a) K. Linnaeus (b) Carl Woese (c) Louis Pasteur (d) Robert Koch	B
242.	The bacteria which use H,S are grouped in: (a) Alpha proteobacteria (b) Gamma proteobacteria (c) Delta proteobacteria (d) Epsilon proteobacteria	B
243.	Leprosy is caused by bacteria. (a) Gram positive (b) Gram negative (c) Mycoplasma (d) None of these	A
244.	Which of the following is not present in all Bacteria? (a) Slim Capsule (b) Cell Wall (c) Both of these (d) Ribosomes	C
245.	Gram staining was discovered by Danish physician in: (a) 1184 (b) 1980 (c) 1884 (d) 1880	C
246.	Which of these groups of bacteria are mostly Atrichous? (a) Spicila (b) Coccus (c) Bassilus (d) All of these	B
247.	The major function of slim capsule is: (a) Pathogenicity (b) Prevent dehydration (c) Escaping (d) All of these	D
248.	Which is not present in photosynthetic bacteria? (a) Photo System II (b) Photo System (c) Chlorophyl a (d) Both a ando	D
249.	The process of transformation was experimented by: (a) Frederick Griffith (b) Zinder (C) Lederberg (d) All of these	A
250.	Cholera is caused by: (a) Vibrio (b) Bacillus (c) Coccuso (d) None of these	A
251.	The test used for diagnosis of typhoid fever (a) Widal test (b) Endoscopy © Both of these (d) None of these	A
252.	The vaccine used for T.B is: (a) BCG (b) AMG (C) BDD (d) All of these.	A
253.	Bacteria Galls is caused by: (a) Xanthomonas Campestris (b) Agrobacterium Tumefaciens (c) Ralstonia Solanacearum (d) Erwinia Carotovora	b
254.	Corynebacteria and lactobacilli are found in human: (a) Oral Cavity (b) Large Intestine (c) Respiratory (d) Urino Genital Tract	D
255.	Who discovered conjugation in Bacteria: (a) Friedreich Griffith (b) Lederberg and Tatum (c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (d) Zinder and Lederberg	B
256.	Mycoplasma is unique because it lacks: (a) Capsule (b) Plasmid (c) Cell Wall (d) Ribosome's	A
257.	The first bacterium isolated was: (a) Coccus (b) Spirillum (c) Spirochete (d) Bacillus	D
258.	Gram positive bacteria appear: (a) Purple (b) Red (c) Pink (d) Blue
259.	Nitrifying bacteria are: (a) Heterotrophic (b) Chemoautotrophic (c) Symbiotic (d) Saprotrophic	B
260.	Pilli is rigid tubular appendages in: (a) Gram Positive bacteria (b) Gram Negative bacteria (c) Both a and b (d) Actinomycetes	B
261.	The region where bacterial genome resides istermed as: (a) Nucleus (b) Cytoplasm (c) Nucleoid (d) Ribosome free region	C
262.	Bacterial chromosome is: (a) Single standard and circular (b) Double stranded and circular (C) Single stranded and linear (d) Double stranded and linear	B
263.	Extra chromosomal, circular, double stranded. self-replicating DNA molecule in bacteria is called: (a) Cosmid (b) Plasmid (C) BAC (d) YAC	B
264.	Membranous infolding in bacteria that initiate DNA replication is: (a) Mesosomes (b) Ribosome (c) Cell wall (d) Nucleosome	A
265.	Cyanobacteria have cell wall. (a) Gram +ve (6) Gram-ve (c) Acid fast (d) Cellulose rich	B
266.	Life on earth in its early years was not possible without prokaryotes because they were involved in: (a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration c) Soil Forming (d) Cell division	A
267.	Super kingdom is also called: (a) Protista (b) Monera (c) Domain (d) Phylum	C
268.	Archaea and bacteria do not share the following characteristics except: (a) Cell Wall Constitution (b) Ribosomal RNA (c) Chemical composition of membrane (d) Autotrophy	D
269.	Methanogenic archaea can survive in conditions which are: (a) Extremely hot (b) Aerobic (c) Highly saline (d) Anaerobic	D
270.	Helical heterotrophs bacteria spiraling through environment are called: (a) Chlamydias (b) Deltaproteobacteria (C) Gram-positive bacteria (d) Spirochetes	D
271.	Glycocalyx is: (a) Gram negative bacteria (b) Loose capsule (C) Invaginated cell membrane (d) Appendage	B
272.	An extra-chromosomal DNA ring in bacteria is called: (a) Nucleoid (b) Plasmid (c) Pili (d) Mesosome	B
273.	In photoautotrophic bacteria the source of hydrogen in photosynthesis is: (a) H2O (b) H2S (c) HO (d) HS20	B
274.	In bacteria fastest growth occurs in the phase called: (a) Log Phase (b) Lag Phase (C) Stationary Phase (d) Decline Phase	A
275.	According to modern trend all living organisms are divided into super kingdom known as domain. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4	C
276.	Who confirmed the existence of bacteria? (a) AV Leeuwenhoek (b) Louis Pasteur (c) Robert Koch (d) Robert Brown	B
277.	Endospores are produced in: (a) Gram Positive Bacteria (b) Gram Negative Bacteria (c) Animal Cell (d) Plant Cell	A
278.	Halophiles bacteria live in: (a) Dead Sea (b) Utah's Great Salt Lake (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
279.	Which are considered to be the Scavenger of earth? (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Both a and b (d) Animal	C
280.	Milk is exposed to 72°C for seconds called HTST. (a) 15 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 10	A
281.	Bacterial blights are caused by: (a) Ralstonia Solanacearum (b) Erwinia Carotovora (C) Agrobacterium Tumefaciens (d) Xanthomonas	D
282.	Flagella are made of: (a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) lipids (d) calcium	A
283.	Chapter No.7 Protista and Fungi
284.	Chitin, a chemical substance present in the cell wall of fungi is a: (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein (c)Lipids (d) Vitamin	A
285.	How many spores are produced in ascus? (a) Four (b) Six (C) Eight (d) Ten	C
286.	The spores produced ascus are termed as: (a) Basidiospores (b) Ascospores (c) Aplanospores (d) Endospores	B
287.	In basidiomycota, four haploid sexual spores called are borne on each basidium. (a) Conidiospores (b) Conidiospores (C) Ascospores (d) Basidiospores	D
288.	Rusts, smuts and bracket fungi are typical examples of: (a) Ascomycota (b) Basidiomycota (c) Deuteromycota (d) Zygomycota	B
289.	The fusion of two cytoplasm in fungi is called: (a) Cytogamy (b) Plasmogamy (c) Karyogamy (d) Oogamy	B
290.	Ring worm in dog and horses are caused by: (a) Aspergillus Species (b) Saprolegnia Parasitica (c) Trichophyton and microsporum (d) Neurospora	C
291.	Dandruff is caused by: (a) Microsporum Furfur (b) Neurospora (c) Fusarium (d) Aspergillus	A
292.	Which kingdom is termed as "Trash can"? (a) Protista (b) Fungi (c) Monera (d) Both a and c	A
293.	African sleeping sickness is caused by: (a) Trypanosomas (b) Trichonympha (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
294.	Dysentery is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b) Amoeba (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
295.	All are symptoms of malaria except: (a) Chill (b) High fever (c) Vomiting (d) Low fever	B
296.	The outer covering of ciliates are called: (a) Pellicle (b) Envelope (c) Core (d) All of these	A
297.	Paramecium reproduce sexually by: (a) Budding (b) Transverse Fission (c) Binary Fission (d) Both b and
298.	How many Genera of Eugleroid possess Chlorophyll? (a) 40 (b) 400 (c) 4000 (d) 30	A
299.	In which of the following cell wall is generally missing? (a) Euglenoid (b) Dinoflagellate (c) Diatoms (d) Both a and b	B
300.	Which one is called Giant Algae? (a) Kelps (b) Chlorophyta (c) Red Algae (d) All of these	A
301.	Which of the following group represent pathological group of fungi? (a) Morels (b) Rust and Smut (c) Penicillin (d) All of these	B
302.	Which are is different from other regarding (a) Rusts b) Mushroom (c) Molds (d) Yeast	D
303.	The red color of Rhodophyta is due to pigment called: (a) Phycobilin (b) Phycoerythrin (c) Rido Erythrin (d All of these	B
304.	Which of the following algae contain chlorophyll b? (a) Chlorophyta (b) Diatoms (c) Dinoflagellate (d) All of these	A
305.	All the following are the example of chlorophyta recept: (a) Chlamydomonas (b) Volox ( Spirogyra (d) Selaginella	D
306.	Ascomycota or water molds are fungus like protista in which cell wall is made up of: (a) Chitin (b) Cellulose (e) Murien (d) None of these	B
307.	Biological name for honey mushroom is: (a) Armillaria Ostoyae (b) Rhizopus Stolonifer (c) Clavicep Purpurea (d) Marchella Esculanta	A
308.	Ergotamine detained from fungi is used in revealing: (a) Migrane Pain (b) Delivery Pain (c) Ergotism (d) Botha and b	D
309.	How many genes yet discovered in yeast: (a) 6000 (b) S000 (c) 9000 (d) 16000	A
310.	Which of the following nutrient is present in yeast? (a) Vitamin B (b) Proteins (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
311.	Which of the following character is shared by bacteria and fungi? (a) Heterotrophic (b) Parasitic (c) Decomposing (d) All of these	D
312.	Trichonympha belong to: (a) Sarcodina (b) Ciliate (c)Mastigophora (d) sporozoa .	C
313.	Which of the following show symbiotic association? (a) Trypanosoma (b) Ent Amoeba (c) Radiolaria (d) Trichonympha	D
314.	The enzyme cellulase in the intestine of termites is produced by: (a) Leishmania (b) Entamoeba (c) Trypanosoma (d) Trichonympha	D
315.	All stages of malarial parasites are haploid except: (a) Gametocytes (b) Sporozoites (c) Ookinite (d) Merozoites	B
316.	Sexual reproduction of malarial parasites occur in: (a) Liver of a man (b) Red blood cell of a man (c) Female anopheles mosquito (d) Stomach of a man	B
317.	A mosquito injects plasmodium into the blood of man in the form of: (a) Zygote (b) Gametocytes (c) Sporozoites (d) Merozoites	C
318.	In the life cycle of plasmodium formation of gametes, their fusion and formation of sporozoites occur in: (a) Liver cells in man (b) Gut of female anopheles mosquito (c) Red blood cells of a man (d) None of these	B
319.	In euglena, cells are covered by: (a) Chitin Layer (b) Pellicle Protein Layer (c) Murein (d) Cellulose	B
320.	Non motile protozoans are kept in group: (a) Ciliata (b) Sporozoa (C) Sarcodina (d) Zooflagellata	B
321.	The macronucleus in paramecium controls: (a) Sexual Reproduction (b) Physiological Function © Excetion (d) Locomotion	B
322.	The fungus like protests that grow on rotting. logs and are glistening bloodies are placed in group: (a) Protomycota (b) Plasmodial Slime Mould (c) Oomycota (d) Basidiomycota	B
323.	Late blight of potato is caused by: (a) Alternaria (b) Ustilago (c) Phytophthora (d) Puccinia	A
324.	The reserve food material in Euglena is: (a) Starch (b) Glycogen (c) Paramylum (d) Cellulose	C
325.	The largest species of algae is: (a) Lamineria (b) Kelps (0) Vacheria (d) Ulva	B
326.	Carrageenan is obtained from: (a) Brown Algae (b) Red Algae (c) Green Algae (d) Golden Brown Algae	B
327.	Q 44) The association between a fungus and roots of higher plants is known as: (a) Roots Modulation (b) Parasitism (c) Mycorrhiza (d) Commensalism	C
328.	The association of an alga with a fungus is termed as: (a) Lichen (b) Mycorrhiza © Commensalism (d) Parasitism	A
329.	All of the following diseases are caused by fungi except: a) Tetanus (b) Ringworm (C) Silkworm (d) Athelete's Foot	A
330.	In fungi, food is stored in the form of: (a) Cellulose (b) Starch (e) Glycogen (d) Sucrose	C
331.	Black mold of bread is the common name of: (a)Rhizopus (b) Yeast (c) Phytopthra d) penicilium	A
332.	Which of the following group represent pathological group of fungi? (a) Morels (b) Ruts and Smut (c) Penicillin (d) All of these	A
333.	The total number of species in kingdom Protista are: (a) 1.S Million (b) 0.5 Million (c) 6,300 (d) 60000200000	C
334.	Which one is oldest Eukaryotes (a) Protists (b) Fungi (c) Animals (d) Plants	B
335.	Trypanosomiasis also known as: (a) Sleeplessness (b) African sleeping disease (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	D
336.	Locomotory organ of ciliata is: (a) Pseudopodia (b) Foot (c) Cilia (d) Flagella	B
337.	Balantidium coli inhabits intestinal tracts of: (a) Pigs (b) Rats (c) Both a and b (d) termites	B
338.	Chap No.8 Diversity Among Plants
339.	Barghoon and Schopt confirmed the existence of bacteria _______years ago: (a) 3 Million (b) 3 Billion (C) 2 Million (d) 2 Billion	B
340.	Ferns flourished well and dominated the ______earth during the periods: (a) Permian and Triassic (b) Triassic and Jurassic (C) Permian and Jurassic (d) Triassic	A
341.	The arrangement of living organisms from ancestor to their descendent through their evolution is called: (a) Classification (b) Taxonomy (c) Alternation of Generation (d) Phyletic Lineage	D
342.	Total number of plant species are: (a) 1.5 Million (b) 0.5 Million C) 200.000 (d) 700	B
343.	Total number of Gymnosperms are (a) 200,000 (b) 50.000 (c) 700 (d) 18.000	C
344.	Gametophytic stage is larger, dominant and autotrophic in: (a) Algae (b) Mosses (c) Liverworts (d) All of these	D
345.	Which of the following have both the generation are independent and morphologically and structurally identical (Isomorphic)? a) Ulva (b) Ectocarpus (c) Both of These (d) None of these	C
346.	Q9) Phylum Bryophyta consists of: (a) Musci-mosses (b) Hepaticae-Liverworts (c) Anthocerotia-Hornworts (d) All of these	D
347.	Which of the following are characteristics of phylum Bryophyta? (a) Non Vascular Plant (b) Non Flowering Plant (c) Gametes are Produced by Mitosis (d) All of these	D
348.	Liverworts are closely related to: (a) Algae (b) Fungi © Mosses (d) Both a and c	c
349.	The first vascular plants are: (a) Horsetail (b) Lycopsida (c) Cycads d. psilopsida	D
350.	Ferns differs from moss in having: (a) Independent Gametophyte (b) Independent Sporophyte (c) Present of archegonia (d) Swimming antherozoids	A
351.	Ferns are (a) Mesophyte (b) Xerophyte (c) Hydrophyte (d) Hygrophyte	C
352.	All of the following are heterosporous except: (a) Pinus (b) Cycas (c) Selaginella (d) Dryopteris	D
353.	The group of plants which first becomes sporophyte is: (a) Psilophyte (b) Gymnosperm (c) Angiosperm (d) Pteridophytes	A
354.	Roots which develop from any portion of the plant except radical are called: (a) Tap Root (b) Stilt Root (c) Fibrous roots (d) Adventitious	D
355.	Parallel venation is found in: (a) Monocots (b) Dicots (c) Monocots but some dicot (d) Dicot but some monocot	C
356.	A spike of unisexual flower is found in: (a) Wheat (b) Onion (c) Mulbary (d) Both b and c
357.	Dichasial cyme is seen in: (a) Ipomoea (b) Begonia (c) Calotropis (d) Bignonia	A
358.	The inflorescence in which flowers arise from different point but reach at same point is known as: (a) Catkin (b) Corymb (c) Umbel (d) Cymose	B
359.	Megasporophyll in Gymnosperms is used for: (a) Carpels (b) Stamen C)Nature of Endosperm (d) Mode of Fertilization	D
360.	Which one of the following features a)presence of ovule b) presence of vessels c) nature of endosperm d) mode of fertilization	A
361.	Which of the following is diploid in Moss (a) Spore (b) Leaves (c) Gametes (d) Capsule	D
362.	Funaria belongs to: (a) Class Musci (b) Class Liverworts (c) Class Homwort (d) Algae	A
363.	Peristome is present in: (a) Polytrichum (b) Adiantum (c) Pinus (d) Selaginella	a
364.	Tracheids are conducting cells of xylem (a) Water (b) Food c) oxygen (d) All of these	A
365.	28) Tracheid cells are present in: (a) Bryophytes (B) Tracheophytes (c) Algae (d) Fungi	B
366.	Sporophytic generation is dominant in: (a) Bryophytes (b) Tracheophytes (c) Algae (d) Fungi	B
367.	Lower vascular plants reproduce through: (a) Spore (b) Seed (c) Fruit (d) None of these	A
368.	Which of the following are higher vascular plant? (an) Angiosperm (b) Gymnosperm (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
369.	Higher vascular plants reproduce through: (a) Spore (b) Seed (c) Fruit (d) None of these	B
370.	Living genera of Subphylum psilopsida: (a) Psilotum (b) Tmesipteris (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
371.	Subphylum Lycopsida is also called: (a) Whisk Fern (b) Club Moss © Horse Tail (d) None of these	B
372.	Which of the following are the fossils genera of subphylum lycopsida: (a) Lepidodendron b) Sigillaria (c) Botha and b (d) Isoetes	C
373.	Total number of species of Selaginella are: (a) 10,000 (b) 300 (c) 70 (d) 50,000	C
374.	Which of the following is extinct plant of Sphenopsida? (a) Calamites (b) Equisetum (c) Selaginella (d) Polytrichum	B
375.	Subphylum sphenopsida is also called: (A) Arthrophytes (b) Rachis (c) Pinna (d) Rhizome	A
376.	Gametophyte is small And photosynthetically independent in Filicinea (a) Prothallus (b) Heart Shape (c) Botha and b (d) None of these	C
377.	Adiantum belongs to: (a) Psilopside (b) lycopside (c) Spheroside (d) Filicinca	D
378.	Double fertilization is present in: (6) Angiosperm (b) Gymnosperm (c) Bryophytes (d) Algae	A
379.	The example of Typical Raceme is: (a) Achyranthes (b) Cassia Fistula (c) Botha and b (d) None of these	B
380.	Begonia is: (a) Uniparous (b) Biparous (c) Multiparous d) solitary flower	A
381.	Quinine is used against: (a) Tuberculosis (b) Malaria (c) Typhoid (d) Dysentery	B
382.	A spike of unisexual flower is found in: (a) Wheat (b) Onion (c) Mulberry (d) Both b and c	D
383.	Dichasial cyme is seen in: (a) Ipomoea (b) Begonia (c) Calotropis (d) Bigonia	A
384.	The inflorescence in which flowers arise from different point but reach at same point is known as: (a) Catkin (b) Corymb (c) Umbel (d) Cymose	B
385.	All are homosporous except: (a) funaria (b) Equisetum (c) Selaginella (d) Adiantum	C
386.	All are heterosporous except: (a) Pinus (b) Brassica (c) Cycus (d) Fern	D
387.	In which of the following heteromorphic alternation of generation occurs? (a) Pinus (b) Sellagenella (c) Angiosperm (d) All of these
388.	The membranous covering over the capsule I moss is called: (a) Protonema (b) Calyptra (C) Operculum (d) Columella	B
389.	In moss plant, spore germinates to form: (a) Prothallus (b) Protonema (c) Promycelium (d) Capsule	D
390.	The male sex organ in Bryophytes is called: (a) Sperm (b) Antherozoid (c) Antheridium (d) Spermatozoid	C
391.	Sporophyte of bryophytes develops from: (a) Spore (b) Protonema (c) Zygote (d) Embryo	B
392.	The female sex organ in bryophytes is called: (a) Antheridium (B) Archegonium @ Oospore (d) Orum	B
393.	In liverworts water is observed by: (a) Roots (B) Rhizomes (c) Rhizoids (d) Rhizophores	C
394.	Funaria is an example of: (a) Mosses (b) Liverworts (c) Algae (d) Pteridophytes	A
395.	In bryophytes sterile hairs in between sex organs are known as: (a) Paraphysis (b) Calyptra (c) Capsule (d) Operculum	D
396.	Lycopodium is an example of: (a) Psilopsida (b) Lycopsida (c) Sphenopsida (d) Angiosperms	B
397.	A large size leaf with prominent blade and many veins is found in: (a) Lycopodium (b) Equisetum (c) Gingko (d) Funaria	C
398.	In ferns, the group of sporangia is called: (a) Sorus (b) Cone (c) Sporophyll (d) Ligule	A
399.	Gametophytic generation is reduced, short lived and dependent in: (a) Marchantia (b) Selaginella (c) Funaria (d) Polytrichum	C
400.	The stem of selaginella is usually covered with: (a) Two rows of small leaves and two rows of large leaves. (b) Four rows of small leaves and four rows of large leaves. (c) Two rows of leaves of same sizes (d) Three rows of leaves of same size.	A
401.	Chap No.9 Diversity among animals
402.	Which of the following cells are present in sycon (A) Nematocysts (b) Nematoblasts (c) Choanocytes (d) Chondriocytes	C
403.	Malpighian tubules in cockroach are used for (a) Respiration (b) Excretion (c) Enzymes secretion (d) None of these	A
404.	Number of legs in insects are: (a) Pairs (b) 3 Pairs (C) 4 Pairs (d) 6 Pairs	B
405.	Dissolved haemoglobin is found in the plasma of: (a) Sponges (b) Cnidarians (c) Earthworm (d) Planaria	C
406.	Excretion by nephridia occurs in: (a) Porifera (b) Cnidaria (c) Annelids (d) None of these	C
407.	In hydra the reproduction is (a) Sexual (b) Asexual (c) Botha and b (d) None of these	C
408.	Body cavity is hemocoel in: (a) Cockroach (b) Earthworm (c) Hydra (d) None of these	A
409.	Salivary glands are present in: (a)Mosquitoes (b) Earthworms (c) Prawns (d) Ascaris	C
410.	Excretion in crustacean occur by: (a) Nephridia (b) Malpighian tubules (c) Coxal glands (d) Kidney	C
411.	Cockroach has no RBC and haemoglobins because it is: (a) Invertebrates (b) It does not respire (c) Its blood does not transport oxygen and carbon dioxide (d) Haemocyanin is oxygen cartier in blood	C
412.	Development without fertilization occur in: (a) Male honey bee (b) Cockroach (C) Scorpion (d) None of these	A
413.	Spines are found in the skin of: (a) Sycon (b) Cockroach (c) House fly (d) Sea Star	D
414.	All members of phylum protozoa are (a) Parasitic (b) Unicellular (c) Multicellular (d) Free living	B
415.	Aquiferous system is found in: (a) Arthopods (b) Annelids (c) Sponges (d) Echinoderms	C
416.	Which one of the following has no alimentary canal? (a) Ascaris (b) Tape Worm (c) Pin Worm (d) Planaris	B
417.	Which of the following is a parazoan animal? (a) Plasmodium (b) Physalia Pelagica (c) Hydra (d) Sycon	C
418.	Phylum chordata is divided into sub- Phylum (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five	C
419.	Due to presence of cranium, the name craniate is given to: (a) Hemichordata (b) Urochordata (c) Cephalochordate (d) Vertebrate	D
420.	Hairs occur in all mammals except order: (a) Primata (b) Cetacea (c) Carnivora (d) Rodentia	B
421.	Which of the following is the closest relative of man? (a) Sparrow (b) Horse (c) Pigeon (d) Snake	b
422.	How many animal species have been described? (a) 1.5 Million (b) 0.5 Million (c) 15 Million (d) 150 Million	A
423.	Animals are thought to be evolved from: (a) Metazoa (b) Protoctista (c) Eumetazoa (d) None of these	B
424.	On the basis of cellular composition of their body, animals have been classified into: (a) Protozoa (b) Parazoa (c) Metazoa (d) All of these	D
425.	Cleavage is spiral and determinate in: (a) Protostome (b) Deuterostome (d) Both of these (d) None of these	B
426.	The smallest unit of classification is: (a) Genus (B) Order (c) Family (d) Species	D
427.	The term protozoa was applied in 1820 by: (a) Linnaeus (b) Goldfuss (c) Haeckel (d) Baer	B
428.	Cyst in protozoans is made up of: (a) Chitin (b) Cellulose (c) CaCO3 (d) Collagen	C
429.	All the animals in grade Bilateria (a) Diploblastic (b) Triploblastic (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
430.	In deuterostomes, blastopore is associated with: a) Anus (b) Mouth (c)Head (d) Both b and c	A
431.	The disease sleeping sickness is caused by: (a) Entamoeba b) Plasmodium (c) Trypanosoma (b) Oplina	C
432.	How many species of sponges live in fresh water? (a) 50 (b) 5000 (c) 150 (d) 1500	C
433.	The internal buds called gemmules are present in (a) Protozoans (b) Annelids (c) Echinoderms (d) Sponges	D
434.	The adults are sessile while larvae are motile in the members of the phylum: (a) Coelenterata (b) Porifera (c) Arthropoda (d) Nematoda	B
435.	In coelenterates, nematocysts are produced by: (a) Choanocytes (b) Pinacocytes (c) Cnidocytes (d) Medusac	C
436.	Aurelia is commonly known as: (a) Hydra (b) Obelia (c) Sea Anemone (d) Jellyfish	D
437.	Medusae, free swimming umbrella like zooids, are specialized to carry (a) Excretory organs (b) Gonads (c) Locomotory organs (d) Protective organs	B
438.	Sponges contain (a) Pinacocytes (b) Choanocytes (c) Amoebocytes (d) All of these	D
439.	All sponges have skeleton except class: (a) Calcarca (b) Hexactinellida (c) Mykospongida (d) All of these	C
440.	Portuguese man of war" is the common name on: (a) Coral (b) Physalia (c) Sea Anemone (d) Obelia	B
441.	Coelenterates are: (a) Herbivorous (b) Carnivorous (c) Omnivorous (D) Parasites	B
442.	Flat worms are: (a) Radially symmetrical (b) Bilaterally symmetrical (c) Asymmetrical (d) None of these	B
443.	Regeneration is absent in the members of class: (a) Turbellaria (b) Cestoda (c) Trematoda (d) Both bandc	D
444.	Digestive system is completely absent in. (a) Planaria (b) Liver fluke (c) Tape worm (d) All of these	C
445.	Pin worm belongs to phylum: (a) Annelida (b) Arthropoda (c) Echinodermata (d) Nematoda	A
446.	Round worms are: (a) Acoelomate (b) Pseudo Coelomate (c) Coelomate (d) None of these	B
447.	Trichinella, a round worm, lives as parasite in human: (a) Intestine (b) Skin (c) Liver (d) Stomach	A
448.	A female Ascaris daily lays (a) 20 Eggs (b) 200 Eggs (C) 2000 Eggs (d) 200,000 Eggs	D
449.	In mollusks, the shell is secreted by: (a) Visceral Mass (b) Mantle (c) Coelom (d) Radula	B
450.	Glochidium larva is formed during development in: (a) Echinoderms (b) Arthropods (c) Annelids (d) Molluscs
451.	Blood contains haemocyanin in: (a) Octopus (b) Cuttlefish (0) Both of these (d) All molluscs lack haemocyanin	C
452.	The largest invertebrate is: (a) King Crab (b) Giant Squid (c) Star Fish (d) Neries	B
453.	In annelids, setae are used for: (a) Locomotion (b) Excretion (c) Respiration (d) Osmoregulation	a
454.	Pheretima posthuma is commonly known as: (a) Star fish (b) Cockroach (C) Earthworm (d) Snail	C
455.	Coelomic Nuid in annelids contains: (a) Monocytes (b) Phagocytes (c) Yellow cells (d) All of these	D
456.	Circulatory system in arthropods is: (a) Closed Type (b) Open Type (c) Arthropods Have no Circulation (d) None of these	B
457.	Book lungs are used for respiration in: (a) Crustaceans (b) Insects (c) Arachnids (d) Myriapods	C
458.	Lobster belongs to the class: (a) Hexapoda (b) Arachnida (c) Crustacea (b) Myriapoda	C
459.	Insects with incomplete metamorphosis belongs to the group: (a) Ametabola (b) Hemimetabola (c) Holometabola (d) None of these	B
460.	Five pairs of walking legs are present in:. (a) Cockroach (b) Centipede (c) Crab (d) Scorpion	D
461.	Members of class onychophora are considered as a connecting link between (a) Annelids and Arthropods (b) Annelids and Echinoderms (c) Molluscs and Arthropods (d) Chordates and Echinoderms	A
462.	A typical circulatory system called haemal system is present in: (a) Arthropods (b) Echinoderms (c) Annelids (d) Molluscs	A
463.	In echinoderms, the adults are radially symmetrical but the larvae are (a) Asymmetrical (b) Bilaterally symmetrical (c) Larvae are also radially symmetrical (d) Some are radially symmetrical while some are bilaterally symmetrical	B
464.	Water canal (aquiferous) system is found in (a) Arthropods (b) Coelenterates (c) Sponges (d) Annelids	C
465.	Both invertebrate and chordate characters are shown by the members of: (a) Phylum echinodermata (b) Phylum arthropoda (c) Phylum hemichordata (d) Phylum annelida	C
466.	Balanoglossus belongs to phylum: (a) Echinodermata (b) Hemichordata (c) Urochordata (d) Cephalochordata	B
467.	Tornaria larva is formed during development in; (a) Annelids (b) Echinoderms (c) Arthropods (d) Hemichordates	D
468.	Branchiostoma is commonly known as: (a) Star Fish (b) Amphioxus (c) Jelly Fish (d) Sea anemone	B
469.	Notochord is present only in free swimming larvae and is absent in adults in: (a) Amphioxus (b) Molgula (c) Earthworm (d) Sea Horse	B
470.	Placoid scales are found in: (a) Cartilaginous Fishes (b) Bony Fishes (c) Cyclostomes (d) All of these	A
471.	It is believed that lobe finned fishes of the group dipnoi are the ancestors of: (a) Birds (b) Reptiles (c) Amphibians (d) Mammals	C
472.	Reptiles are: (a) Homeothermic (b) Poikilothermic (c) Both of These (d) None of these	B
473.	Uropygial gland or preen gland or oil gland (a) Fish (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Birds	D
474.	Bat belongs to the order: (a) Primata (b) Cetacea (C) Chiroptera (d) Edentata	C
475.	Ornithorhynchus is commonly known as (a) Duck billed Platypus (b) Spiny Anteater (c) Scaly Anteater (d) Squirrel	A
476.	Cotylosaurs are believed that ancestors of: (al Fish (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Mammals	C
477.	Both ovaries and oviducts are functional in: (a) Eagle (b) Parrot (c) Pigeon (d) Ostrich	A
478.	Organs are absent in: (a) Corals (b) Sponges (c) Jelly Fish (d) Star Fish	B
479.	Radial symmetry is found in: (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Cnidarian (c) Annelids (d) Molluscs	B
480.	Which of these is not tissue grade animals? (a) Venus flower basket (b) Hydra (c) Liver Fluke (d) Physelia	A
481.	Cnidarians are characterised by presence of (a) Nematocysts (b) Gastrovascular cavity (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
482.	Which of these is commonly called Portuguese man of war? (a) Hydra (b) Metridium (C) Physalia (d) Aurelia	C
483.	Excretion in flat worm is performed by: (a) Flame Cells (b) Nephridia (c) Malpighian tubules (d) All of these	A
484.	Coelom is divided into septa in case of: (a) Mollusk (b) Annelids (c) Sponges (d) Cnidarians	B
485.	Complete metamorphosis occur in: (a) Moths and Mosquitoes(b) Grasshoppers (c) Bed Bug (d) All of these	B
486.	Hard chitinous exoskeleton is found innanimals of: (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca (c) Arthropoda (d) Cnidarian	C
487.	Leech is: (a) Unisexual b) Dirocious (c) Monoecious (d) None of these	A
488.	Which of the following are not included in grade bilateria? (a) Coelenterata (b) Annelida (e) Nematoda (d) Mollusca	A
489.	The animals having bilateral symmetry in their larval stage but radial symmetry in adult form are included in phylum: (a) Aschelminthes (b) Echinodermata (c) Mollusca (d) Platyhelminthes	B
490.	Pseudocoelom is not homologous to true coelom because: (a) It develops from the blastocoel of the embryo (b) It is not lined with coelomic epithelium (c) It has no relation with reproductive and excretory organs (a) All of these	D
491.	Which of the following is characteristic feature of series deuterostomia? (a) Coelom is formed due to splitting of mesoderm (b) Mouth arises from blast pore or its anterior margin (c) Cleavage of zygote is spiral and determinate (d) Mesoderm is derived from wall of the developing gut	B
492.	Inner lining of the body wall of sponges is made up of: (a) Choanocytes (b) Nematocysts (c) Pinacocytes (d) Cnidocytes	A
493.	Which one is an example of fresh water sponge? (a) Euplectella (b) Leucosolenia (c) Sycon (d) Spongilla	D
494.	Jelly-like layer between ectoderm and endoderm of the body wall of coelenterates is called: (a) Parenchyma (b) Mesenchyma (c) Mesoglea (d) Mesoderm	C
495.	Nutritive zooids of the coelenterate colony are called: (a) Dactylozooids (b) Gastrozooids (c) Gonozoids (d) None of these	B
496.	Which of the following belongs to phylum cnidaria? (a) Jelly fish (b) Sea anemone (c) Physalia (d) All of these	D
497.	Which of the following is an adaptation for parasitic mode of life in platyhelminthes? (a) Adhesive organs like hooks and suckers (b) Resistant cuticle (c) Simplified digestive system (d) All of these	D
498.	Nerve ring surrounding the pharynx of the nematodes give rise to: (a) One nerve cord (b) Two nerve cords (c) Three nerve cords (d) Four nerve cords	C
499.	The common name of Fasciola hepatica is: (a) Liver Fluke (b) Tape Worm (c) Hook worm (d) Pin worm	A
500.	Which of the following is not a class of phylum annelida? (a) Polychaeta (b) Hirudinea (c) Bivalvia (d) Oligochaeta	C
501.	Chap No.10 Form and Functions in plants
502.	Lack o f chlorophyll in plants causes: (a) Late Blight (b) Early Blight (c) Chlorosis (d) All of these	C
503.	Release of nitrates by saprophytic bacteria helps in: (a) Oxygen Cycle (b) Nitrogen Cycle (c) Carbon Cycle (d) None of them	B
504.	The traps of carnivorous plants contain (a) Phospholipids (b) Hormones (c) Sugar (d) Digestive Enzymes	D
505.	Thick walled dead cells like tracheid vessels are included in: (a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) None of These	B
506.	The increase in thickness of the plant due to the activity of cambium is: (a) Primary Growth (b) Secondary Growth (b) Tertiary Growth D) None of these	B
507.	The movement restricted to bifacial organs like the leaves and petals of flower is the (a) Tactic Movement (b) Nastic Movement (c) Tropic Movement (d) None of these	D
508.	Some flowers such as those of tobacco and lady of the night close up during the day time and open at night. The closing of such flowers and leaves during the day time is: (a) Diurnal Sleep (b) Nocturnal Sleep (c) Phototropic Effect (d) Both a ando	D
509.	Chlorosis is: (a) The uptake of the micronutrient chlorine by a plant (b) The formation of chlorophyll within the thylakoid membranes of a plant (c) Yellowing leaves due to decreased chlorophyll production (d) A contamination of glasswase in hydroponic culture	C
510.	Carnivorous plants have evolved mechanisms for trapping and digesting small animals. The producer of this digestion are used to supplement the plant's supply of: (a) Carbohydrates (b) Nitrites (c) Lipids and Steroids (d) Water	B
511.	All of the following are element that plants need in very small amounts (micronutrients) except: (a) Hydrogen (b) Iron (c) Chlorine (d) Copper	A
512.	The tissue most likely to provide flexible support is the: (a) Epidermis (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Parenchyma cell (d) Collenchyma	A
513.	Fibers like hemp, flex are made up of: (a) Epidermis (b) Parenchyma (C) Sclerenchyma (d) Collenchyma	C
514.	The apical meristem in the root: (a) Is located behind the root cap (b) Produces cells which become incorporated into the root cap (c)Gives rise to the primary meristematic tissue (d) All of these	A
515.	______provide the major force for the movement of water and solutes form roots to leaves (a) Translocation (b) Bulk Flow (c) Transcription d) Root Pressure	D
516.	Which bond are responsible for the cohesion of water molecules? (a) lonie (b) Hydrogen c) Non Polar Covalent (d) Polar Covalent	B
517.	In a sugar sink such as a taproot sugar is converted into: (a) Fatty Acid (b) Proteins (c) Glycogen (d) Starch	D
518.	Plants are able to detect photoperiod changes by the (a) Attention of the two forms of phytochrome (b) Settling of amyloplasts (c) Direction of the light source (d) Movement of potassium ions	A
519.	Which of the following does not apply to meristematic cells? (a) Small in Size (b) Prominent Nuclei (c) Thicle Walled (d) None Vacuolated	C
520.	Due to which of the following, flowers of tulip open in daytime and close at night (a) Photropism (b) Photonasty (c) Thigmotropism (d) Chemotropism	B
521.	Apical meristem is responsible for the initiation of: (a) Primary Growth (b) Secondary Growth (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
522.	Apical meristem is located at the tip of which one of the following? a) Root Only (b) Stem Only (C) both a and b (d) Rhizoids	C
523.	Which of the following is true for meristematic cell? (a) Cell is large and vacuolated (b) Cell is small and non vacuolated (c)Cell is large and non vacuolated (d) Cell is small and vacuolated	B
524.	Which one of the following tissues has very high rate of respiration in plants? (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Meristematic	D
525.	Which are of the following is not a plant hormone? a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Insulin (d) Cytokinins	C
526.	Which one of the following promotes the cell enlargement? a) Cytokinin (b) Gibberellin (c) Auxin (d) Both a and b	C
527.	A fungus causing Foolish seedling disease in rice contains a hormone called? (a) Auxi (b) Gibberellium (d) Cytokinium (d) Ethylene	B
528.	What is the role of cytokins in plants? (a) Promotion of cell division (b) Rapid cells maturation (c) Slow cells maturation (d) Repid cells enlargement	A
529.	Apical dominance controls the development of which one of the following? (a) Primary Root (b) Root Hair (o) Lateral Buds (d) Apical Buds	A
530.	A long day plant has a photo period of 13L/11D, which one of the following photo periods will initiate following in it? (a) 12L/12D (b) 10L/14D (c)9L/15D (d) 141/10D	A
531.	Which of the following is called primary nutrient? (a) (b) N (C) P (d) All	D
532.	Which nutrient is less available in soil? (a) Primary Nutrient (b) Micronutrient (c) Macronutrient (d) Both a and c	D
533.	Chlorosis or yellowing of leaves occurs as result in deficiency of: (a) N (b) Mg (c)C (d) All	D
534.	Passive trap is found in: (a) Nepenthes (b) Darlingtonia (c) Sarracenia (d) All of these	D
535.	In monocot plants the guard cells are: (a) Kidney Shaped (b) Bean Shaped (c) Dumbell Shape (d) Both a and b	C
536.	The non living pathway of molecules in roots to xylem is called: (a) Apoplast (b) Symplast (c) Vaccular Plast (d) Zig-Zag Movement	A
537.	The attractive force between molecules of water and other substance is called: (a) Cohesion (d) Adhesion (c) Tension (d) None of these
538.	The carbohydrates translocated across phloem in the form of: (a) Sucrose (b) Glucose (c) Fructose (d) All of these	A
539.	All of the following are hydrophytes except: (a) Hydrilla (b) Vallisneria (c) Potamogeton (d) Zizyphus	D
540.	Stone cells are found in: (a) Hoya Carnosa (b) Phyrus (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
541.	Chap No.11 Digestion
542.	Which of the following is a childhood disease resulting from nutritive Ca deficiency? (a) Hypocalcemia (b) Tetanic Spasms (c) Osteomalacia (d) Rickets Tetany	D
543.	In pancreatic juice the enzyme responsible to hydrolyze fats is: (a) Trypsinogen (b) Trypsin (c) Lipase (d) Amylopepsin	C
544.	The lacteal are called so because of their: (a) Yellow color (b) Red color (c) Nilley color (d) Blue color	A
545.	Large amounts of carbohydrates are stored in (a) Stomach (b) Cell bladder (c) Portal vein (d) Liver	D
546.	Part of the digestive system which is not in contact with food is: (a) Small intestine (b) Stomach (c) Liver (d) Vacuum	C
547.	Amino peptidase is secreted by: (a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Jejunum and ileum (d) Pancreas	C
548.	Glands associated with various regions of digestive tract in humans: (a) Salivary Glands (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) All of these	D
549.	How many pairs of salivary glands are present in humans? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five	B
550.	Gastrin is a: (a) Enzyme (b) Coenzyme (c) Hormone (d) Activator	C
551.	Pancreatic juice contains: (a) Lipase (b) Amylase (c) Tripsinogen (d) All of these	D
552.	pH of fresh saliva is: (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 14	C
553.	The breakdown of complex organic compounds of food into simpler diffusible molecules by the action of enzymes is called: (a) Ingestion (b) Digestion (c) Egestion (d) Assimilation	B
554.	Most vitamins function as: (a) Catalyst (b) High energy compound (c) Transport molecules (d) None of these	A
555.	The structure in the mouth that prevents food from entering the nasal cavities is the (a) Epiglottis (b) Teeth (c) Pharynx (d) Soft palate	D
556.	A mammalian herbivore has: (a) Fewer teeth than a carnivore (1) Flatter teeth than a carnivore (c) More teeth than a carnivore (d) More pointed teeth than a carnivore	B
557.	Many humans become ill by consuming milk or milk products because they lack: (a) Bacteria in their intestine (b) Rennin (e) Lactase (d) HC	B
558.	Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder? (a) Cat (b) Man (0) Lion (d) Goat	D
559.	The length of human digestive tract is about: (a) 10 Feet (b) 30 Feet (C) 50 Feet (d) 70 Feet	B
560.	All of the following are the functions of the liver except: (a) Recycles red blood (b) Site of bile production (c) Site of deamination of Amino Acids (d) Excretion of urea	D
561.	Absorption of nutrients occurs in the (a) Stomach (b) Beginning of the small intestine (c) Latter part of the small intestine (d) Colon	C
562.	Which pair is correctly matched? (a) Cardiac Sphincter-Small Intestine (b) Pancreas -bile (c) H. pylori - ulcer (d) Amylase - digests proteins	C
563.	Gastric-enzymes work best in an environment with a pH of: (a)3 (b) 6 (c)7 (d) 8	A
564.	Hunger center is located in: (a) Pons (b) Medulla Oblongata (c) Cerebrum (d) Hypothalamus	D
565.	How many teeth an adult human has? (4) 20 (b) 32 © 34 (d) 51	B
566.	Which one of the following salivary glands is present in human mouth? (a) Parotid (b) Sub-Lingual (c) Sub-Mandibular (d) All of these	D
567.	The central and largest region of the stomach is: (a) Cardiac region (b) Fundus (c) Body (d) Pyloric region	C
568.	Gastric glands consist of: (a) Parietal cells (b) Chief cells (c) Hormone secreting cells (d) All of these	D
569.	Last part of the small intestine is: (a) Duodenum (b) Jejunum (c) ileum (d) Colon	C
570.	Brunner's glands are found in: (a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Caecum (d) Esophagus	B
571.	Digested food is carried from the intestine to the liver by: (a) Hepatic vein (b) Gastric vein (c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Renal vein	C
572.	Kupffer cells are found in (a) Duodenum (b) Liver (c) Stomach (d) Large Intestine	B
573.	Enzymes in the bile work effectively in: (a) Acidic Condition (b) Alkaline Condition (d) Both a and b (d) Bile does not contain enzymes	D
574.	Liver is stimulated to produce and secrete bile by: (a) Secretin (b) Inhibin (c) Insulin (d) Glucagon	A
575.	Pancreatic juice is secreted by: (a) Alpha Cells (b) Beta cells (c) Delta Cells (d) Acinar cells	D
576.	Pancreatic duct is also known as: (a) Duct of Wirsung (6) Ampulla of Vater (c) Sphincter of Oddi (d) Bile duct	A
577.	The only digestive enzyme secreted by pancreas in an active form is: (a) Trypsinogen (b) Pepsinogen (C) Amylase (d) Enterokinase	A
578.	Inflammation of the stomach lining is called: @) Listeriosis (b) Septicemia (c) Dyspepsia (d) Gastritis	D
579.	Daily bile production by liver cells is about (a) Iml (b) 10ml (9) 200ml (d) 1000ml	D
580.	A normal BMI (body mass index) (a) 18.5 to 24.9 (b) 25.0 to 29.9 (c) 30 (d) 40	A
581.	Presence of excess lipids in the blood is known (a) Hypothyroidism (b) Hyperlipidaemia (c) Lipogenesis (d) Lipolysis	B
582.	Sign of anorexia nervosa is: (a) Excessive weight loss (b) Low blood pressure (c) Osteoporosis (d) All of these	D
583.	Botulism is caused by: (a) Clostridium (b) Staphylococci (c) Salmonella (d) E.Coli	A
584.	Which of these is absorbed in the human large intestine? (a) Amino Acids (b) Sugars (c) Water (d) Fatty acids	C
585.	Bile is secreted by liver cells known as: (a) Kupffer cells (b) Acinar Cells (c) Hepatocytes (d) None of these	C
586.	Walls of the stomach are made up of: (a) Circular Muscles (b) Longitudinal Muscles (c) Oblique Muscles (d) All of these	D
587.	A psychological eating disorder in which a person after eating fully gets rid of the excess food by artificial means is known as: (a) Anorexia Nervosa (b) Obesity (c) Bulimia Nervosa (d) Piles	C
588.	Intrinsic factor helps in the absorption of: (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B12	D
589.	The secretion of gastric juice is under: (a) Chemical Control (b) Nervous Control (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
590.	Chap No.12 Circulatory System
591.	Human heart is surrounded by a tough membrane known as: (a) Miringes (b) Peritoneum (c) Pericardium (d) Mesentery	C
592.	There are two types of circulatory fluids the blood and: (a) Coelomic (b) Lymph (c) Water (d) Water and Coelomic	B
593.	Human ventricle is equipped with an outlet value known as: (a) Mitral Valve (b) Tricuspid valve (c) Bicuspid Valve (d) Semilunar valve	D
594.	The right atrium open into the right ventricle by an opening known as: (a) Mitral Valve (b) Tricuspid Valve (c) Semilunar Valve (d) Guard Valve	B
595.	Contraction of heart chambers is called: (a) Beating (b) Dialysis (c) Diastole (d) Systole	D
596.	Relaxation of heart chambers is called: (a) Systole (b) Diastole (c) Dialysis (d) Beat	B
597.	Heart wall is made up of: (a) Smooth Muscles (b) Skeletal Muscles (C) Voluntary Muscles (d) Cardiac Muscles	D
598.	The blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart are known as: (a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Lymphatic (d) Capillaries	A
599.	The average diameter of a human blood capillary is about: (a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.2 micron (c) 0.2 milli micron (d) 7 milli micron	D
600.	Arteries have thick muscular walls which are made up of: (a) One layer (b) Two layers (c) Three layers (d) Four layers	C
601.	Which of the following is true about mammals? (a) They have right aortic arch only (b) They have left aortic arch only (c) They have left and right aortic arches (d) They lack aortic arches	B
602.	Cardiac muscles can be distinguished from other muscle fibres because cardiac muscles: (a) Contain only actin (b) Voluntary in action (c) Lacks regular arrangement of sarcomeres (d) Have intercalated discs	D
603.	Lymph closely resembles (a) Blood (b) Plasma (c) Interstitial fluid (d) Urine	C
604.	Which of the following statements is correct about the heart? (a) The right ventricle pumps blood to the aorta (b) The left ventricle pumps blood to the entire body (c) The right atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs (d) The right ventricle has the thickest wall of all the chambers-	c
605.	All of the following statements are correct about human red blood cells except: (a) They do not have a nucleus (b) They live for 120 days (c) They are called leukocytes (d) They are formed in the bone marrow	C
606.	All of the following correct about human circulation except: (a) Arteries have thick muscular walls (b) Haemoglobin carries oxygen (c) Pacemaker of the heart is the SA node (d) The only artery carrying deoxygenated blood is the aorta	D
607.	All of the following are related to blood clotting except: (a) Fibrinogen (b) Thromboplastin (c) Erythrocytes (d) Thrombocytes	C
608.	Cardiac cycle completes in: (a) 8 sec (b) 0.8 sec (C) 80 sec (d) 01 sec	B
609.	In electrocardiogram (ECG), P wave represents: (a) Atrial Systole (b) Ventricular Systole (c) Atrial Diastole (d) Ventricular Diastole	A
610.	The diameter of a capillary is: (a) 1 inch (b) 3 mm (c) 7.5 m (d) 10 mm	C
611.	Total volume of blood in human body is: (a) 8 Litres (b) 5 Litres (C) 50 Litres (d) 45 Litres	B
612.	Sphygmomanometer is used to measure: (a) Blood Volume (b) Temperature (c) Blood Plasma (d) Electrical Activity of Heart	D
613.	The term embolus was coined in 1848 by (a) William Harvey (b) Carl Virchow (c) Morgan (d) Sutton	B
614.	The condition in which the wall of artery thickens due to the deposition of fatty material is called: (a) Arteriosclerosis (b) Atherosclerosis (c) Myocardial infarction (d) Edema	b
615.	In some babies, right ventricle or left ventricle fails to develop. This defect is known as: (a) Cyanosis (b) Ventricular hypertrophy (c) Bundle branch block (d) Hypoplasia	D
616.	If no medical cause is found to explain the raised blood pressure, it is: (a) Secondary Hypertension (b) Essential or Primary Hypertension (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
617.	Main cause of angina pectoris is: (a) Hypertension (b) Hypotension (c) Atherosclerosis of the cardiac arteries (d) Stroke	C
618.	The first coronary artery bypass surgery was performed on May 2, 1960 in: (a) USA (b) UK (C) Germany (d) Japan	A
619.	A liquid be, used in angiography to make the arteries easily visible, includes: (a) Iodine (b) Barium (c) Gadolinium d ) All of these	D
620.	The technique of mechanically widening a narrowed or obstructed blood vessel is called: (a) Angiography (b) Angioplasty (c) Coronary Bypass (d) Open heart surgery	B
621.	The first successful intracardiac correction of a congenital heart defect was performed by: (a) Dr. C.W. Lillehei (b) Dr. FJ Lewis (c) Both of these (d) Cuvier	C
622.	Circulation of lymph in lymphatic vessel is brought about by: (a) Activity of skeletal muscles (b) Breathing movements (c) Movements of the viscera (d) All of these	D
623.	Largest lymph vessel is: (a) Thoracic Duct (b) Right Lymphatic Duct (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
624.	Histamine is produced by: (a) Lymphocytes (b) Neutrophils (c) Basophils (d) Monocytes	A
625.	The process by which the lymphatic system carries cancerous cells between various parts of the body is called: (a) Phagocytosis (b) Metastasis (C) Metagenesis (d) Lipolysis	B
626.	Which of the following is a lymphatic organ? (a) Stomach (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Heart	C
627.	Thalassemia is also called: (a) Oedema (b) Leucaemia (c) Haemophilia (d) Cooley's Anemia	D
628.	How many RBCs are present per cubic millimeter of human blood? (a) 2 Million (b) 5 Million (c) 8 Million (d) 10 Million	d
629.	Blood platelets are also called: (a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes (c) Thrombocytes (d) Lymphocytes	C
630.	Baroreceptors are located in: (a) Blood Vessels (b) Brain Region (c) Skin (d) Heart	A
631.	Pulse is defined as: (a) An alternate expansion and recoil of an artery (b) Ventricular systole during which blood is passed into ventricles of heart (c) Closure of semilunar valves at the entrance of aorta (d) Over expansion of pericardium	a
632.	White blood cells accumulate at the site of wound by: (a) Homeostasis (b) Diapedesis (c) Pinnocytosis (d) Damaged Capillaries	D
633.	Which of the following animals has the largest RBCs among all vertebrates? (a) Elephant (b) Ostrich (c) Snake (d) Salamander	B
634.	The most abundant compound of blood plasma of man is: (a) Water (b) Fibrinogen (c) Glucose (d) Salts	A
635.	The study of blood is called: (a) Immunology (b) Haematology (c) Cardiology (d) Rheumatology	B
636.	Pericardial fluid contains: (a) Protein (b) Lymphocytes (C) Lactate Dehydrogenase (d) All of these	D
637.	Chap no.13 Immunity
638.	The study about immune system is called: (a) Gerontology (b) Herpetology (c) ichthyology (d) Immunology	D
639.	In humans, the is the largest organ of the integumentary system. (a) Liver (b) Spleen (c) Pancreases (d) Skin	D
640.	Which one of the following is included in first line of defense? (a) Skin (b) Digestive tract (c) Mucous and Cilia (d) All of these	D
641.	Skin is involved in (a) Providing Insulation (b) Sensation (c) Temperature Regulation (d) All of these	D
642.	Which one of the following is non-specific defense? (a) First line of defense (b) Second line of defense (c) Third line of defense (d) Both a and b	D
643.	Epidermal dendritic cells are present in: (a) Skin (b) Pancreas (c) Liver (d) All of these	A
644.	Dermis contain protein fibers called: (a) Keratin (b) Collagen (c) Actin (d) All of these	D
645.	Which one of the following produce oil? (a) Sweat Gland (b) Sebaceous Gland (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	B
646.	Which of the following are integumentary gland? (a) Sweat Gland (b) Sebaceous (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
647.	Sweat gland secrete sweat which contain: (a) Salt (b) Lysozyme (Enzyme (c) Urea (d) All of these	D
648.	Skin is in nature due to sebaceous gland. (a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) None of these	A
649.	Cilia and hair filter out dangerous particles in incoming air like: (a) Bacteria (b) Pollen Grain (c) Dust Particle (d) All of these	D
650.	All of the following are parts of the first line of defense of the immune system except: (a) Leukocytes (b) Skin (c) Stomach Acid (d) Mucus	A
651.	All of the following are true of the second part of the first line of defense of the immune system except: (a) Increased production of histamine (b) Phagocytes (c) Stomach Acid (d) Inflammatory Response	C
652.	Which of the following initiate the clotting process? (a) Plasma (b) White Blood Cells (c) Red Blood Cells (d) Platelets	D
653.	Fluid collected on the clot is like plasma except that it has no: (a) Water (b) Hemoglobin (c) Red Blood Cells (d) Fibrinogen	C
654.	During the clotting process, fibrinogen is converted into: (a) Thromboplastin (b) Prothrombin (c) Fibrin (d) Thrombin	C
655.	The blood without its cells is: (a) Serum (b) Plasma (c) Lymph (d) Fibrinogen	B
656.	Some special type of blood proteins that provide immunity against certain diseases are: (a) Antibodies (b) Antigens (c) Hormones (d) Blood Clotting Protein	A
657.	The worn out and old blood cells are destroyed in: (a) Spleen and Liver (b) Kidney (c) Bone Marrow (d) Pancreas	A
658.	All of the following are part of the first line of defence of the immune system except: (a) Leukocytes (b) Skin (c) Stomach Acid (d) Mucus	A
659.	All of the following are true of the second line of defence except: (a) Increased Production of Histamine (b) Phagocytes (c) Stomach Acid (d) Inflammatory Response	C
660.	All of the following are correct about the immune system except: (a) The first line defence is non specific (b) The second line defence is non specific (c) Macrophages engulf huge number of microbes (d) T-lymphocytes release antibodies	D
661.	Which of the following is true abouthistamine? (a) It is part of the body's first line of defence (6) It kills the germs by dissolving them (c) It causes sneezing and a running nose in an attempt to rid the body of germs (d) It is a toxin released by microbes or germs	C
662.	Certain danger in a blood transfusion comes when the: (a) Recipient has antigens to the donor blood (b) Recipient has antibodies to the donor blood (c) Donor has antibodies to the recipient's blood (d) Donor has antigens to the recipient's antigens	B
663.	All of the following are autoimmune diseases except (a) Arthritis (b) Lupus (c) Scleroderma (d) AIDS	D
664.	Antibodies are: (a) Memory Cells (b) Plasma Cells (c) Specitic (d) Part of First Line of Defence	B
665.	Which is an example of passive immunity? (a) Life Long Immunity (b) Babies who are nursing receive antibodies from their mother (c) You become resistant to a viral infection once you have recovered from it (d) You become resistant to mumps after receiving the mumps Vaccine	B
666.	Which of the following are true about the immune system? (a) Vaccines can cure certain common viral infections (b) Allergies can be cured by antibodies (c) Multiple sclerosis is caused by an allergy (d) Arthritis is an autoimmune disease	D
667.	Vasodilation: (a) is triggered by histamine (b) is caused by interferons (c) Is part of an immunoglobulin (d) Means engulfing antigens	A
668.	Antigen is also known as: (a) Immunoglobulin (b) Immunogen (c) Collagen (d) Allergen	B
669.	Sebum is secreted by: (a) Sweat Glands (b) Sebaceous glands (c) Sudoriferous Glands (d) All of these	B
670.	Highly saline environment is: (a) Favourable for most Microbes (b) Unfavourable for most Microbes (c) Having no effect on Microbes (d) None of these	B
671.	Which of the following functions are carried out in the nose and nasal cavities? (a) Filtration of the air (b) Warming the air (c) Moistening of the air (d) All of these	D
672.	Large monocytes in the tissues are called: (a) Neutrophils (b) Lymphocytes (c) Macrophages (d) Eosinophils	C
673.	Natural killer cells, type of lymphocytes are: (a) Neurotoxic (b) Cytotoxic (c) Phagocytic (d) None of these	B
674.	Virion is: (a) An Immature Virus (b) A Viroid (C) A Mature Virus (d) Not a Virus	C
675.	A number of neutrophils attract to the site of an injury or cut by: (a) Diffusion (b) Chemotaxis © Phagocytosis (d) Pinocytosis	B
676.	When B cells are activated, they divide and differentiate to produce: (a) T Cells (b) Antigens (c) Plasma Cells (d) All of these	C
677.	Complement system of the body defence is activated by lipid-sugar molecules on the surface of: (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c) Protozoa (d) Nematodes	A
678.	Interferon is a: (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein (c) Lipid (d) Cellulose	B
679.	When tissues are injured or damaged, inflammatory response is initiated by the release of chemical like: (a) Histamine (b) Bradykinin (c) Serotonin (d) All of these	D
680.	Pyrexia means the elevation of body: (a) Blood Pressure (b) Hormone Level (c) Metabolism (d) Temperature	D
681.	Fever is beneficial as it: (a) Stimulates the immune system (b) Provides unfavorable environment for invading organisms c) Results in higher production of WBCS (d) All of these	D
682.	Cell mediated response is produced by (a) B Lymphocytes (b) T-Lymphocytes (0) Antigens (d) Antibodies	B
683.	Each antibody molecule consists of (a) Two Polypeptides (b) Four Polypeptides (c) Six Polypeptides (d) Only Lipid	B
684.	The process where body is made immune or resistant to an infectious disease, typically by the administration of a vaccine is called: (a) Immunization (b) Inflammation (c) Transfusion (d) Transplantation	A
685.	Allergens cause the production of: (a) IgA (b) IgM (c) IgD (d) IgE	D
686.	For successful tissue transplantation, which of the following must be matched? (a) Antibodies (b) T-Lymphocytes (c) B-Lymphocytes (d) Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins	D
687.	The response shown by the memory cells is called: (a) Primary Im mune Response (b) Secondary Immune Response (c) Immunization (d) Inflammation	C
688.	Chap No.14 Respiration
689.	How much oxygen molecules are transported by the red blood cells as oxyhaemologbin? (a) 96% (b) 97% (c) 98% (d) 99%	B
690.	………. of oxygen is carried out by plasma (a) 2% (b) 3% (c) 5% (d) 6%	B
691.	Maximum oxygen carrying capacity of arterial blood at 100 mmHg PO, is: (a) 20ml/100ml of Blood (b) 19.4 ml/100ml of Blood © 5ml/100ml of Blood (d) 4.4 ml/100ml of Blood	A
692.	Amount of hemoglobin in 100ml of blood is: (a) 5 g (b) 10 g ( 15 g (d) 20 g	C
693.	I gm hemoglobin can combine with: (a) 1.24 ml of O (b) 1.34 ml of O (c) 1.44 ml of O (d) 2.34 ml of O	B
694.	Normal value of oxygen in 100ml of arterial blood will be: (a) 19.4 ml O₂ (b) 18.4 ml O₂ (c) 17.4 ml O₂ (d) 20.4 ml O₂	A
695.	100 of venous blood will have oxygen at rest: (a) 19.4 ml O₂ (b) 14.4 ml O₂ (c) 20 ml O₂ (d) 5 ml O₂	B
696.	100 ml of blood will release oxygen to the tissue at rest at a volume of: (a) 5 ml (b) 20 ml (c) 19.4 ml (d) 20.4 ml	A
697.	During exercise 100ml of blood will release oxygen to the active tissue at a volume of: (a) 5ml (b) 10 ml (c) 15ml (d) 20ml	C
698.	The venous blood that leaves an active tissue has only oxygen: (a) 4.4 ml/100ml of Blood (b) 3.4ml/100ml of Blood (c) 19.4ml/100ml of Blood (d) 1.34ml/100ml of Blood	A
699.	In plasma 100ml of blood will have oxygen: (a) 0.29ml O (b) 0.39 ml O2 (c) 0.49 ml O (d) 0.59 ml O	A
700.	In plasma 100ml of venous blood will have oxygen: (a) 0.02 ml (b) 0.12 ml (c) 0.18 ml (d) 2.1 ml	B
701.	100 of blood will carry oxygen in the dissolved state in plasma: (a) 0.17ml (b) 0.27 ml (c) 0.37 ml (d) 0.47 ml	A
702.	the trachea of man, prevent it from: A series of C-shaped cartilage rings present (a) Bending (b) Shorteding (c) collapsing (d) Swelling	C
703.	In man the O2 is liberated from hemoglobin when the pressure in ml of Hg in cells or tissues falls below (a) 80 of Hg (b) 60 of Hg (c) 70 of Hg (d) 50 of Hg	D
704.	The opening of the larynx is: (a) Epiglottis (b) Larynx (c) Trachea (d) Vocal cord	A
705.	Under resting conditions an adult human breath: (a) 10-13 Times Per Minute (b) 10-15 Times Per Minute (c) 15-20 Times Per Minute (d) 13 Times Per Minute	C
706.	When the chest wall is lowered and moves inward, and the diaphragm is raised, it results in: (a) Respiration (b) Expiration (c) Inspiration d) Breathing	B
707.	Breathing rate in mammals is controlled by a centre situated in a part of the brain called the (a) Thalamus (b) Hypothalamus (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Cerebellum	C
708.	Respiration means: (a) Intake of Oxygen (b) Removal of Carbon Dioxide Only (C) Use of Oxygen in Oxidation of Assimilated Food Resulting in Liberation of Energy and CO2 (d) All of these	C
709.	How many polypeptide chains are found in a myoglobin molecule? (a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six	A
710.	How much air the lungs can hold when they are fully inflated? (a) 4 Litres (b) 5 Litres (C) 3.5 Litres (d) 1.5 Litre	B
711.	Which of these factors influence the respiratory centre? (a) Water Vapour (b) CO: (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
712.	BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of: (a) Emphysema (b) Lung Cancer (e) Tuberculosis (d) Pneumonia	C
713.	Accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity results in a condition known as: (a) Empyema (b) Pleural Effusion (c) Hyponatemia (d) Asthma	A
714.	Otitis media is the inflammation of: (a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Nose (d) Throat	B
715.	Number of large sinuses is: (a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Ten	A
716.	Hamburger's phenomenon or chloride shift is associated with the transport of: (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen (c) CO2 (d) All of these	D
717.	Most of the carbon dioxide is transported in (a) Carboxyhemoglobin (b) Oxyhaemoglobin (C) Bicarbonate ions (d) dissolved in Plasma	A
718.	The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is present in: (a) White blood cells (b) Red Blood Cells (c) Platelets (d) Lungs	B
719.	How much oxygen is released to the tissues by each 100ml of blood? (a) 20 ml (b) 5 ml (c) 16 ml (d)1.34 ml	B
720.	Amount of hemoglobin per 100 ml of blood is: (a) 10 gm (b) 15 gm (c) 100 gm (d) 60 gm	B
721.	Bronchioles have a diameter of: (a) 1 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 20 mm (d) 13 mm	A
722.	Which of the following has no cartilage? (a) Trachea (b) Larynx (c) Bronchi (d) Bronchioles	D
723.	Thickness of the alveolar walls is (a) 1 um (b) 0.1 um (0) 10 um (d) 2 um	B
724.	Vocal cords in males, as compared to females, are: (a) Small in size (b) Large in size (c) Equal in size (d) Females have no vocal cords	B
725.	There are three lobes in: (a) Right Lung (b) Left Lung (C) Both Lungs (d) None of these	A
726.	Lungs are covered by membranes known as: (a) Peritoneum (b) Pericardium (c) Pleura (d) Perimetrium	C
727.	Tidal volume is about: (a) 1.5 Litres (b) 5 Litres (c) 500ml (d) 3.5 Litres	C
728.	Breathing is controlled by: (a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla oblongata (c) Cerebellum (d) Thalamus	B
729.	Surfactant is secreted by the cells of: (a) Bronchi (b) Lungs (c) Alveoli (d) All of these	C
730.	Ventral portion of the breathing centre stimulates: (a) Inspiration (b) Expiration (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
731.	Our normal oxygen intake per minute amounts to: (a) 20ml (b) 250ml (c) 100ml (d) 300ml	B
732.	In human, inspiration is: (a) An Active Process (b) A Passive Process (c) Does Not Occur (d) None of these	A
733.	If air is introduced in the pleural cavity, the lung collapses, a situation known as: (a) Sinusitis (b) Emphysema (c) Pneumothorax (d) Otitis Media	c
734.	Rate of oxygen consumption is estimated by using: (a) Thermometer (b) Stethoscope (c) Spirometer (d) Sphygmomanometer	C
735.	The wall of trachea (windpipe) and bronchi of man is furnished with a series of incomplete: (a) Cartilaginous Plates (b) Chitinous Rings (c) Cartilaginous Rings (d) Muscular Rings	C
736.	What does not happen during inspiration in man? (a) Intercostal Muscles Contract (b) Ribs are Elevated (C) Diaphragm Becomes Dome Shaped (d) Ribs Move Forward	C
737.	The lateral walls of the chest cavity of man are composed of the: (a) Ribs (b) Intercostals Muscles (e) Ribs and Intercostals Muscles (d) Ribs, Intercostals Muscles and Diaphragm	C
738.	When the human blood leaves the capillary bed of the tissue, most of the carbon dioxide is the form of: (a) Carbonic Acid (b) Bicarbonate ions (c) Carboxylic Acid (d) None of them	B
739.	Which sequence of organs is correct in air passageway of man? (a) Nasal cavities, larynx, pharynx, trachea bronchi (b) Nasal cavities, pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi (C) Nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, bronchi. trachea (d) Nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi	D
740.	Which part of the air passage way possesses cartilage plates in its walls? (a) Bronchioles (b) Distal Region of Bronchi (c) Proximal Region of Bronchi (d) Trachea	D
741.	Human lungs are spongy due to the presence of millions of: (a) Bronchi (b) Alveoli (c) Bronchioles (d) Trachea	B
742.	Which event is not associated with the activity of expiration? (a) Contraction of Diaphragm (b) More dome like shape of diaphragm (c) Backward and downward movement of rib Cage (d) Relaxation of Intercostal Muscles	A
743.	Oxygen carrying capacity of blood does not depend on: (a) Partial pressure of CO (b) Partial pressure of O (c) Height from sea level (d) Quantity of blood	A
744.	When haemoglobin of the blood is fully saturated with oxygen, the 100cc of blood contains: (a) 15cc of Oxygen (b) 20cc of Oxygen (c) 25cc of Oxygen (d) 10cc of Oxygen	B
745.	If the average breathing rate is 15 breaths per minute and the tidal volume is 0.5 litre, the ventilation rate will be: (a) 1.5 Litres min (b) 7.5 Litres min (c) 0.75 Litres min (d) 5 Litres min	B
746.	Chap No. 15 homeostasis
747.	The enlarged end of the ureter within the kidney is: (a) Nephron (b) Urinary Bladder (c)Pelvis (d) Hilus	C
748.	In nephron glomerulus is present in the: (a) Bowman's Capsule (b) First coiled part (c) Second coiled part (d) Loop of Henle	A
749.	Which one of the following controls salt levels in the human body: a) Lungs (b) Kidney (c) Heart (d) All of these	B
750.	The removal of nitrogenous waste and any other substance which are not needed in the cell activities is: (a) Excretion (b) Homeostasis (c) Respiration (d) Co-ordination	A
751.	A mammal excretes nitrogen in the form of: (a) Ammonium lons (b) Amino Acids (c) Urea (d) Uric Acid	C
752.	In humans, which kidney lies a little lower than other: (a) Right (b) Left (c) Both are present at same level (d) None of these	A
753.	The unit of structure and function in human kidney is: (a) Nephron (b) Neuron (c) Alveoli (d) All of these	A
754.	About how many nephrons are there in each kidney of human: (a) 16 (b) 200 (c) 1000 (d) 1000000	D
755.	The force that moves fluid from the blood through the walls of a capillary and bowman's capsule of a nephron is: (a) The beating of cilia (b) Blood pressure (C) Peristalsis of capsule (d) Gravity	B
756.	Which of the following components of th blood does not enter the nephron: (a) lons (b) Glucose (c) Plasma Proteins (d) Urea	C
757.	Which of the following parts of the nephron is least permeable to water: (a) Proximal tubules (b) Descending limb of the Loop of Henle (C) Ascending limb of the Loop of Henle (d) Collecting duct	C
758.	The functioning of kidney to form urine is the result which of the following process: (a) Pressure filtration through the glomerulus (b) Reabsorption of the filtrate as it passes through the glomerulus (c) Tubular secretion (d) All of these	D
759.	In man urea is formed principals in: (a) Gall Bladder (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Kidneys	B
760.	The complex cyclic sequence of enzymatic reaction as a result of which urea is formed is (a) Urea Cycle (b) Ornithine Cycle (0) Urine Cycle (d) Botha and b	D
761.	The pH of urine vary from: (a) 4 to 5 (b) i to 4 c) 11 (d) 4.6 to 8	D
762.	The enlarged end of the ureter within the kidney is: (a) Nephron (b) Urinary Bladder (c) Pelvis (d) Hilus	C
763.	In a nephron glomerulus is present in the (a) Bowman's Capsule (b) First coiled part (c) Second coiled part (d) Loop of Henle	A
764.	Which one of the following controls salt levels in the human body: (a) Nephridia (b) Malpighian Tubules (c) Kidney (d) Alveol	C
765.	Various nitrogenous excretory substance formed during chemical changes in the cells are: (a) Ammonia (b) Urea (c) Uric Acid (d) All of these	D
766.	The pH of urine vary form: (a) 4.00 to 8.00 (b) 4.1 to 8,00 (c) 4610800 (d) 4.8 to 8.00	C
767.	The nitrogenous wastes in man are removed by: (a) Lungs (b) Kidney (c) Blood (d) Both a and b	D
768.	The enlarged anterior end of the ureter in human kidney is called: (a) Pelvis (b) Hilus (c) Bean (d) All of these	A
769.	Which of the following is correct about the kidney? (a) Filteration Occurs in the Bowman's Capsule and is non-Selective (b) Filteration is selective and occurs by active Transport (c) Reabsorption is selective and occurs by passive transport only (d) Reabsorption occurs in the glomerulus	c
770.	In human, urea is: (a) Produced in the kidney and excreted by the skin (b) Produced in the liver and excreted mainly by the kidneys (c) Produced in the lungs as a by-product of exhaling (d) Accumulates in our Bodies as We Age	B
771.	ADH most directly affects: (a) Glomerulus (b) Bowman's capsule (c) Lacteal (d) Collecting tubule of the nephron	D
772.	Which of the following animals is an osmoconformer? (a) Shark (b) Skate (e) Hag Fish (d) All of these	D
773.	Fresh water animals actively transport salts from the external dilute medium with the help of special salt cells called: (a) Choanocytes (b) lonocytes (c) Melanocytes (d) Solenocytes	B
774.	One of the following is concerned with the secretion of salts: (a) Brunner's Glands (b) Sebaceous Glands (c) Rectal Glands (d) Preen Gland	C
775.	Land snail is: (a) Ammonotelic (b) Ureotelic (c) Uricotelic (d) None of these
776.	The rate of blood flows through both kidneys per minute is approximately: (a) 5 L (b) 8 L (c) 1.2 L (d) 3 L	C
777.	The kidney is surrounded by tough membrane tissue known as: (a) Pericardium (b) Renal Peritoneum (c) Periosteum (d) Sarcolemma	B
778.	The act of emptying the bladder is called: (a) Circulation (b) Filtration (c) Secretion (d) Micturition	D
779.	The capillaries surrounding the loop of the Henle are called: (a) Peritubular capillary network (b) Vasa Recta (c) Glomerulus (d) All of these	B
780.	The cells of Bowman's capsule in the kidneys glomerulus are called: (a) Lonocytes (b) Podocytes (c) Choanocytes (d) Yellow cells	b
781.	How much glomerular filtrate is produced ultrafiltration per minute? (a) 12 ml (b) 25 ml (c) 125 ml (d) 251 ml	C
782.	Which part of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water? (a) Ascending Limb (b) Descending Limb (c) Both Limbs (d) Henle's Loop has no relation with water	A
783.	The distal convoluted tubule perform the functions like: (a) Osmoregulation (b) Maintaining blood pH (c) Sodium (d) All of these	D
784.	Tubular secretion is caused mainly by: (a) Diffusion (b) Active transport (c) Carrier molecules (d) All of these	B
785.	Cystitis is the infection of: (a) Kidney (b) Urethra (c) Bladder (d) Nephron	C
786.	Fungal organism causing urinary tract infection is: (a) Escherichia Coli (b) Klebsiella (c) Staphylococcus (d) Candida Albicans	D
787.	High calcium level in the blood is known as: (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hypercalciuria (c) Hypocalcemia (d) Hyperuricemia	A
788.	Normal range of uric acid in the blood of men: (a) 1 mg/dL (b) 3.4-7 mg/dL (C) 10 mg/L (d) 20 mg/dL	B
789.	Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy (PCNL) technique is used to remove: (a) Small kidney stones (b) Large kidney stones (c) Urea (d) None of these	B
790.	Presence of blood in the urine is called (a) Glycosuria (b) Anuria (c) Haematuria (d) Pyelonephritis	C
791.	A metabolic disorder in which an excess of uric acid accumulates in the body and is deposited in the joints is known as: (a) Pyrexia (b) Hyperoxaluria (c) Gout (d) Diabetes Insipidus	c
792.	The protection of an internal environment frobm the harms of fluctuations is the definition of which of the following? (a) Osmoregulation (b) Excretion (c) Thermoregulation (d) Homeostasis	D
793.	The environment where the animals produce large volume of diluted urine is: (a) Hypotonic Aquatic (b) Isotonic Aquatic (c) Hypertonic Aquatic (d) Terrestrial	C
794.	The excretory product that requires minimum water for its elimination compare to others: (a) Urea (b) Uric Acid (e) Creatinine (d) Ammonia	B
795.	The excretory structures that deliver urine from kidneys to urinary bladder are: (a) Urethra (b) Ureter (c) Pelvis (d) Collecting Tubule	B
796.	The metabolic wastes that are ingested into the body and must be removed include: (a) Pesticides (b) Drugs (c) Food additives (d) All of these	D
797.	Which of the following is not endotherm? (a) Bird (b) Amphibian (c) Flying Insects (d) Mammals	B
798.	Name the type of adaptations from the following that is responsible for shivering thermogenesis: (a) Structural (b) Physiological (c) Behavioral (d) All of these	B
799.	The primary advantage of peritoneal dialysis is: (a) More effectiveness than Haemodialysis (b) Can be used without dialysate (c) Can be used without any catheter (d) Mobility	D
800.	First successful kidney transplantation took place in: (a) 1930 (b) 1954 (c) 1980 (d) 1994	B
801.	How many Human Leukocyte Antigens (HLAS) a person has? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Six	D
802.	Non-shivering thermogenesis is the heat production caused by: (a) Voluntary Muscles (b) High metabolic rate (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
803.	Heat is lost from the general body surface by: (a) Radiation (b) Convection (c) Conduction (d) All of these	d
804.	Vasoconstriction plays a vital role in: (a) Heat Loss (b) Heat conservation (c) Both of these (d) None of these.	B
805.	Support and movement
806.	A connective tissue consisting of chondrocytes and type II collagen is: (a) Bone (b) Blood (c) Cartilage (d) All of them	C
807.	Epiglotis is an example of cartilage: (a) Hyaline (b) Elastic (c) Fibro (d) None of them	B
808.	30% matrix of a bone is composed of organic material, chiefly: (a) Protein (b) Collagen (c) Both of these (d) None of them
809.	70% matrix of a bone is composed of inorganic salts, chiefly: (a) Calcium Phosphate (b) Sodium (c) Potassium (d) Bicarbonate	A
810.	Initially the bone is formed by: (a) Osteocyte (b) Osteoclast (c) Osteoblast (d) All of them	C
811.	Demineralization of bone resorption is carried by: (a) Osteoclast (b) Osteoblast (c) Osteocyte (d) Chondrocyte	A
812.	bones are fused with eachother in an adult. (a) 134 (b) 124 (c) 144 (d) 154	C
813.	Axial skeleton of human consist of skull vertebral column and: (a) Fore Arm (b) Pelvic Girdle (c) Pectoral Girdle (d) Ribs	D
814.	Skull of human is made up of bones: (a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 8 (d) 6	C
815.	Muscle fibres are cylanderaced unbranch and with diameter of: (a) 10-80 m (b) 20-60 m (c) 10-100 m (d) 10-60m	C
816.	Bones are held together with each other, and at joints by: (a) Nerves (b) Ligament (c) Tendon (d) Smooth Muscles	B
817.	Coccyx forms which part of vertebral column? (a) First (b) Middle (c) Last (d) None of them	C
818.	Which one of the following constitute the wrist of man? (a) Tarsal (b) Metatarsal (c) Carpals (d) Metacarpals	C
819.	The cranium in man consists of bones. (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9	C
820.	……… pairs of ribs form the rib cage in man (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 11	B
821.	The wrist of a man consist of: (a) Carpels (b) Metacarpals (C) Ischium (d) Scapula	A
822.	Which of these is a direct source of energy for muscle contraction? (a) ATP (b) Creatine Phosphate © Lactic Acid (d) Botha and b	D
823.	Which of the following changes occur when skeletal muscle contracts (a) The A Band shorten (b) The I Band shorten. (c) The Z-Line slide farther apart (d) The actin filament contract
824.	Thin filament in myofibrils consist of (a) Actin, Tropomyosin. Troponin (b) Z-Line (c) Chloride ions (d) Sarcomere	A
825.	In the mammalian skeleton, there is a distinct synovial joint between the (a) Bones of the Cranium (b) Humerus and lina (c) Sacrum or ilium (d) Sternum and Floating Ribs	B
826.	Which of the following is a bone of axial skeleton (a) Ribs (b) Shoulder Girdle (c) Pelvis (d) Femur	A
827.	Vertebral column includes (a) Sacrum (b) Coccyx (c) Cervical. Thoracic and Lumbar Vertebrae (d) All of these	D
828.	In mammal, the no. of cervical vertebrae are (a) No definite no (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) Varies with the size of the neck	B
829.	Brain is protected by: (a) Cranium (b) Skull (c) Orbits (d) All of these	A
830.	Which of the following causes muscle fatigue? (a) CO (b) Lactic acid accumulation (c)Fumaric Acid (d) Ethyl Alcohol	B
831.	Cardiac muscles are: (a) Voluntary (b) Involuntary (c) Both of these (d) None of them	B
832.	The disorder in which bones are porous and thin but bone composition normal is: (a) Osteomalacia (b) Osteoporosis (c) Rickets (d) Arthritis	B
833.	The organic portion of bone matrix is important in providing all but: (A)Tensile Strength. b) Hardness (c) To Resist Stretch (d) Flexibility	D
834.	The remodeling of bone is a function of: (a) Chondrocytes and Osteocytes (b) Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts (c) Chondroblasts and Osteoclasts (d) Osteoblasts and Osteocytes	B
835.	In skeletal muscles, calcium facilities contraction by binding to (a) Tropomyosin (b) Troponin (c) Actin (d) Myosin	B
836.	Which of the following statements concerning the role of Ca in the contraction of skeletal muscle is correct? (a) The mitochondria act as a store of Ca for the contractile process (b) Ca entry across the plasma membrane is important in sustaining contraction of skeletal muscle (c) A rise in intracellular Ca allows actin to interact with myosin (d) All of these	C
837.	The function of the T-tubules in muscle contraction is to: (a) Make and Store Glycogen (b) Releases Ca into the cell interior and then pick it up again (c) Make the action potential deep into the muscle cells (d) To hamper the nerve impulse	C
838.	The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the (a) Neuromuscular Junction (b) Sarcomeres (c) Myofilaments (d) Z-dises	A
839.	Myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue (a) It breaks down glycogen (b) It is a contractile protein (c) It holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle (d) None of them	C
840.	V. low levels of calcium in the body results in: (a) Tetanus (b) Tetany (c) Cramps (d) All of these	B
841.	Writer's cramp first affects an individual by inhibiting their ability to: (a) Speak (b) Write (c) Walk (d) Move	B
842.	Osteoclasts are: (a) Mononucleated Cells (b) Multinucleated Cells (c) Without Nucle (d) None of them	B
843.	Cartilage matrix consists of: (a) Type I Collagen (b) Type II Collagen (c) Both types (d) No Collagen	B
844.	Which of the following is an unpaired bone? (a) Parietal (b) Temporal (c) Malleus (d) Mandible	D
845.	40) How many individual bones are present in an adult human? (a) 350 bones (b) 206 bones (c) 650 bones (d) 126 bones	B
846.	Bones are held together by: (a) Tendon (b) Ligament (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
847.	Spondylosis is also known as: (a) Sciatica (b) Sprain (c) Spinal Osteoarthritis (d) Disc Slip	C
848.	If the bone ends penetrate the skin and forms a wound, the fracture is (a) Simple Fracture (b) Closed Fracture (c) Compound Fracture (d) All of these	C
849.	Injury to a ligament is called: (a) Joint Dislocation (b) Sprain (c) Sciatica (d) Arthritis	B
850.	Muscles of the digestive system are: (a) Striated Muscles (b) Smooth Muscles (c) Cardiac Muscles (d) Skeletal Muscles	B
851.	Region of a myofibril between two successive Z-lines is called: (A)Sarcolemma. (b) Sarcomere (c) Cross Bridge (d) T-Tubule	B
852.	Sliding filament hypothesis was proposed in: (a) 1930 (b) 1941 (c) 1954 (d) 1980	C
853.	When the electrical impulses reaching a muscle fibre cease the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins to re-accumulate the calcium ions by: (a) Diffusion (b) Active Transport (c) Both of these (d) None of them	B
854.	Cross bridges are found on: (a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) Troponin (d) Tropomyosin	B
855.	Bone formation is called: (a) Petrifaction (b) Haematoma (c) Mineralization (d) Ossification	C
856.	How many carperls forms human writst? (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 20	B
857.	Nervous coordination
858.	Those parts of the body that receive stimuli from external or internal environment are (a) Receptors (b) Transducer (c) Effector (d) Both a and b	D
859.	Mechanoreceptors which detects touch is: (a) Meissner Corpuscle (b) Pacinian Corpuscle (c) Free nerve endings (d) All of them	A
860.	Pain is detected by: (a) Mechanoreceptors (b) Thermoreceptors (c) Nociceptors (d) Osmoreceptors	C
861.	50% of nervous system consist of cells: (a) Neurons (b) Nephrons (c) Neuroglia (d) Soma	C
862.	The main function of Schwann cell (neuroglia) is to make? (a) Nissl's Granule (b) Soma (C) Axon (d) Myelin Sheath	D
863.	Chemically myelin sheath is made up of: (a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates (c) Lipids (d) Both b and c	C
864.	A wave of electrochemical change that travels along the length of neuron, from one end to other: (a) Reflex Arc (b) Reflex Action (c) Nerve Impulse (d) Influx (d) More positive outer surface of neuron	C
865.	membrane than the inner surface, this state is referred as: (a) Polarized state (b) Depolarized state (c) Repolarized state (d) None of them	A
866.	The concentration of potassium in the Nude inside the nerve cell to outside is greater: (a) 10 Times (6) 20 Times (C) 30 Time (d) 40 Times	A
867.	For every two potassium ions that are actively transported inward number of sodium ions pumped out: (a)1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4	C
868.	Any qualitative or quantitative the environment detected by an organism is a: a) Stimulus (b) Response (c) Impulse (d) Effector	B
869.	The first organized central nervous system appears in:. (a) Paramecium (b) Sponge (c) Hydra (d) Planarian	D
870.	Thyroid gland has the ability to store: (a) lodine (b) Fluorine (c) Chlorine (d) Phosphorus	A
871.	In which of the following arts of the brain the speech center is situated: (a) Cerebellum (b) Hypothalamus (c) Thalamus (d) Cerebrum	D
872.	There are distinct senses in humans (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11	A
873.	Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus are parts of: (a) Fore Brain (b) Mid Brain (c) Hind Brain (d) Spinal Cord	A
874.	Which of the following is common to all neurons? (a) A cell body which contains a nucleus (b) A thick myelin sheath (c) Presence of node of Ranvier (d) Presence of Schwann cell	A
875.	What will occur if a drug at the neuromuscular junction blocks the receptor sites on the post-synaptic membrane? (a) Inhibition of acetylcholine release (b) Muscle contraction (c) Muscle paralysis (d) Release of calcium ions	A
876.	The groups of ribosomes present in the cell body of the neuron, which are associated with rough endoplasmic reticulum are called: (a) Meissner's Corpuscles (b) Pacinian Corpuscles (c) Nissl's Granules (d) Lysosome Granules	C
877.	The mammalian forebrain is differentiated into thalamus, limbic system and the (a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum (c) Hippocampus. d hypothalamus	B
878.	Information back from the control center to the effectors as done by nerve pathway (a) Afferent (b) Efferent (0) Both of these (d) None of these	B
879.	The number of human spinal nerves is: (a) 24 (b) 50 (c) 62 (d) 64	C
880.	The electrical potential of cell membrane of neuron when it is not transmitting any signal is called (a) Resting Membrane Potential (b) Action Potential (c) Propagation of Impulse (d) Synapse	D
881.	Which would occur if the parasympathetic system was stimulated? (a) Increase in Blood Sugar (b) Increase in Digestion (c) Increase in Breathing Rate (d) Increase in Adrenaline	D
882.	A nerve is a: (a) Collection of Neurons (b) Concentration of Dendrites and Axons (c) Bundles of Axons or Dendrites of Neurons (d) Bundles of Axons or Dendrites Bounded by connective tissue	D
883.	Nociceptors detect: (a) Pressure (b) Temperature (c) Pain (d) Blood Pressure	C
884.	The photoreceptor in the human eye includes: (a) Rod (h) Cone (c) Both of these d) None of these	C
885.	A non-myelinated part of axon between two schwann cells is called: (a) Myelin Sheath (b) Synapse (C) Synaptic Cleft (d) Node of Ranvier	D
886.	Associative neurons are (a) Unipolar (b) Bipolar (c) Multipolar (d) None of these	C
887.	The pathway of nerve impulse during reflex action is called: (a) Resting Potential (b) Action Potential. (c) Reflex Are (d) Reticular Formation	C
888.	Channels in the neuron membrane which perform active transport are: (a) Gates (b) Pumps (e) Both of these (d) None of these	B
889.	If a stimulus is capable to bring an Electrochemical change on neuron or to excite a given tissue, it is called: (a) Sub-Threshold Stimulus (b) Threshold Stimulus (C) Spike Potential (d) Inadequate Stimulus	B
890.	The conduction of action potential from node to node in jumping manner is called: (a) Continuous impulse conduction (b) Saltatory impulse conduction (c) Resting membrane Potential (d) None of these	B
891.	Thick neuron fibres conduct: (a) Slow impulse (b) Faster impulse (c) No impulse (d) Thickness has no Relation to impulse conduction	B
892.	In electrical synapses, the cells are separated by the synaptic cleft of only: (a) 0.2 nm (b) 20 nm (c) 200 nm (d) 2 nm	A
893.	Which one is an inhibitory neurotransmitter? (a) Acetylcholine (b) Glutamate (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
894.	The enzyme monoamine oxidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of: (a) Glutamate (b) Acetylcholine (c) Adrenaline (d) All of these	C
895.	Meninges include: (a) Dura mater (b) Arachnoid (c) Pia Mater (d) All of these	D
896.	Which one of the following is concerned with long term memory? a) Amygdala (b) Hippocampus (c) Hypothalamus. (d) Thalamus	B
897.	It is believed that Alzheimer's disease results from an increase in the production or accumulation of a specific protein known as (a) Nicotine (b) Phenylalanine (c) Beta Amyloid Protein (d) Acetylcholine	C
898.	Malignant tumor is: (a) Cancerous (b) Non-Cancerous (c) Both of these (d) None of these	A
899.	Stroke caused by a blood clot that blocks or plugs a blood vessel in the brain is known as: (a) Haemorrhagic Stroke (b) Ischemic Stroke (c) Meningitis (d) Cephalalgia	B
900.	Use of alcohol reduces levels of: (a) Serotonin (b) Dopamine (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
901.	The disease in which people imagine they are in a magical world and see enemies everywhere is called: (a) Dementia (b) Alzheimer's Disease (c) Paranoia (d) Epilepsy	C
902.	Cannabis is also known as: (a) Marijuana (b) Heroine (c) Hashish (d) None of these	A
903.	Heroine is processed from: (a) Nicotine (b) Morphine (c) Cannabis (d) Alkaloids	B
904.	A sensation of tingling, pricking or numbness of the skin resulting from nerve damage is called: (a) Paranoia (b) Cephalalgia (c) Paresthesi (d) Euphoria	C
905.	Sense of touch is called: (a) Gestation (b) Tactition ©lfaction (d) Depression	B
906.	Which of the following lack taste buds?. (a) Filiform Papillae (b) Fungi Form Papillae (c) Foliate Papillae (d) Circumvallate Papillae	A
907.	Which of the following events is not associated with the sympathetic nervous system? (a) Increase in Heartbeat (b) Dilation of the Pupil (c) Lowering of blood pressure (d) Inhibition of peristalsis	C
908.	Cranial nerve pairs number I, II and VIII are functionally: (a) Sensory (b) Motor (c) Mixed (d) None of these	A
909.	The collection of neuron cell bodies is called: (a) Nerves (b) Tracts (c) Ganglia (d) Plexus	C
910.	Spinal cord has a length of about: (a) 0.8 inches (b) 8 inches (c) 18 inches (d) 81 inches	C
911.	In cross section, the spinal cord shows: (a) An inner white matter and outer gray matter (b) An inner gray matter and outer white matter (c) Only gray matter (d) Only white matter	B
912.	Sodium pump means: (a) Expelling of Na into ECF and intake of K from cytoplasm against concentration gradient (b) Expelling of K into ECF and intake of Na from cytoplasm (c) Only expelling of Na into ECF (d) Only intake of K into cytoplasm.	A
913.	Chemical Coordination
914.	Chemically hormones are amino acids, protein,polypeptide or: (a) Fat (b) Carbohydrate (c) Lipid (d) Steroid	D
915.	Testosterone, estrogen and progesterone are hormones of: (a) Steroid nature (b) Amino acid nature (c) Protein nature (d) Polypeptide nature	A
916.	The no. of ductless glands lying in different parts of the human body is: (a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 25	C
917.	Pituitary gland is pea sized, weighs 0.5 attached to hypothalamus by a stalk: (a) Acetabulum (b) Infundibulum (c) Both a and b (d) None of them	B
918.	Over secretion of growth hormones during childhood resulted in: (a) Acromegaly (b) Gigantism (c) Goiter (d) Myxedema	B
919.	Menstrual cycle in lactating mother is inhibited by: (a) Progesteron (b) Estrogen (C) Oxytocin (d) Prolactin	D
920.	Diuresis is concerned with (a) ACTH (b) FSH (C) ADH (d) LH	C
921.	The hormone which facilitates parturition is: (a) LH (b) Progesteron (c) FSH (d) Oxytocin	D
922.	T3 and T4 are hormones secreted by: (a) Parathyroid Gland (b) Pituitary Gland (c) Thyroid Gland (d) Both a and c	C
923.	Exophthalmia and graves disease are concerned with: (a) Hyperthyroidism (b) Hypothyroidism (C) T3 (d) T4	A
924.	Insufficient secretion by the thyroid gland at infancy gives rise to a dwarfed condition, the:. (a) Goiter (b) Gigantism (c) Cretinism (d) Myxedema	C
925.	The islets of Langerhans is endocrine tissue situated within: (a) Adrenal Cortex (b) Adrenal Medulla (c) Pancreas (d) Testes	C
926.	The normal blood glucose level is: (a) 40 mg/100 cm (b) 50 mg/100 cm (c) 60 mg 100 cm (d) 70 mg/100 cm	D
927.	Insulin tends to: (a) Decline blood glucose level (b) Accelerate conversion of glucose to glycogen (c) Both a and b (d) None of these	C
928.	The adrenal glands are located adjacent to: (a) Larynx (b) Urinary © Kidney (d) Gonads	C
929.	All of the following are secretions of adrenal gland except: (a) Cortisone (b) Adrenaline (c) Oxytocin (d) Noradrenaline	C
930.	The principal androgen is: (a) Testosterone (b) Progesterone (c) Vasopressin Hormone (d) Lactogenic Hormone	A
931.	Diabetes insipidus is caused due to under: (a) FSH (b) LH (c) LTH (d) ADH	D
932.	The word hormone (literally means to excite or arouse or set in motion was suggested in 1905 by: (a) Morgan (b) Mendel (c) Starling (d) Sutton	C
933.	First hormone to be discovered in: (a) Thyroxi (b) Vasopressin (C) Secretin (d) Insulin	C
934.	Which of the following hormones are involved. in biorhythms? (a) Oxytocin (b) Melatonin (c) Parathormone (d) Calcitonin	B
935.	Human growth hormone: (a) Raises blood sugar Level (b) Stimulates the ovaries (c) Stimulates growth of long bones (d) Stimulates thyroid glands	C
936.	All of the following are correct about the endocrine system except: (a) Endocrine Glands are Ductless (b) Parathormone is the Fight or Flight Hormone (c) The Islet Cells in the Pancreas Produce both Glucagon and Insulin (d) Polypeptide Hormones Must Bind 10 a Receptor and Trigger a Secondary Messenger	B
937.	All of the following hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary except: (a) Glucagon (b) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (C) Human Growth Hormone (d) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone	A
938.	First crystalline hormone is: (a) Antidiuretic Hormone (b) Thyroxin (c) Glucagon (d) Estrogen	B
939.	Tropic hormones: (a) Are secreted by the thyroid (b) Are secreted by the liver (c) Are released by the hypothalamus (d) Are hormones that stimulate other glands	D
940.	Which one of the following conditions is resulted from excess GH in adults? (a) Cushing's Syndrome (b) Acromegaly (c) Hyperthyroidism (d) Diabetes Mellitus	B
941.	……. regulates the kidneys retention of water (a) Prolactin (b) Oxytocin (C) Thyroxine (d) Vasopressin	D
942.	Parathyroid hormone acts to ensure that: (a) Calcium levels in the blood never drops (b) Sodium levels in urine are constant (C) Potassium levels in the blood don't escalate (d) The concentration of water in the blood is sufficient	A
943.	The adrenal cortex produces: (a)Adrenaline. (b) Calcitonin (c) Epinephrine (d) Aldosterone	D
944.	Oxytocin is secreted by the endocrine gland name: (a) Pituitary Gland (b) Thyroid Gland (c) Pituitary Gland (d) Adrenal Gland	A
945.	The one which is not related to the others is: (a) Cretinism (b) Myxoedema (c) Exophthalmic Goitre(d) Diabetes Mellitus	D
946.	Child birth is an example of: a) Negative Feedback Mechanism (b) Positive Feedback Mechanism (c) Both of These (d) Not Related to Feedback Mechanism	B
947.	Which of the following hormone is used clinically as a heart stimulant and to dilate the bronchioles during acute asthmatic attack? (a) Oxytocin (b) Insulin (c) Epinephrine (d) Testosterone	C
948.	Undersecretion of the adrenal cortex hormones results in a condition known as: (a) Cushing's Syndrome (b) Addison's Disease (c) Parkinson's Disease (d) Myxoedema	B
949.	Glucagon is produced by……cells of the islets of langerhans. (a) Alpha Cells (b) Beta Cells (c) Delta Cells (d) F-Cells	A
950.	A condition of excessive thirst is known as: (a) Polyuria (b) Polydipsia (c) Polyphagia (d) Pyelonephritis	B
951.	Weight of pituitary gland in human is: (a) 100mg (b) 15mg (c) 200mg (d) 500mg	D
952.	The largest endocrine gland is: (a) Pituitary Gland (b) Thyroid Gland (c) Parathyroid Gland (d) Pineal Gland	B
953.	The normal blood glucose level is between:. (a) 10 to 100 mg/100 ml (b) 20 to 90/100ml (c) 30 to 80 mg/100ml (d) 63 to 144 mg/100ml	D
954.	When excess glucose begins to be lost from the body in the urine, this condition is called: (a) Glycosuri (b) Hypoglycemia (c) Hyperglycemia (d) Hypercalcemia	A
955.	Undersecretion of parathormone causes: (a) Hypercalcemia (b) Hypocalcemia (C) Diabetes mellitus (d) Polyuria	B
956.	Calcitonin stimulates: (a) Calcium deposition in bones (b) Inhibition of Ca absorption by the intestine (c) Reduction of Ca and K reabsorption in kidney tubules (d) All of these	D
957.	Hypothyroidism in children results in a condition known as: (a) Exophthalmic Goiter (b) Myxoedema (c) Cretinism (d) Goiter	C
958.	Grave's disease results from: (a) Hypothyroidism (b) Hyperthyroidism (c) Hypoparathyroidism(d) Hyperparathyroidism
959.	Myxoedema means: (a) Mental Retardation (b) Eye Protrusion (0) Mucous Swelling (d) High Metabolism	C
960.	Thyroid gland has a weight of about: (a) 2g (b) 12g (c) 25g (d) 40g	C
961.	In lactating women, the letdown reflex or milk ejection reflex is set off by: (a) Prolactin (b) Luteinizing Hormone (c) Oxytocin (d) Insulin	C
962.	Hormones in our body are the substances which are: (a) Secreted in restricted areas and influence the activities of various parts of the body (b) Secreted in various parts of the body but have activity in limited area (c) Secreted only in the animals but not in plants (d) None of these.	A
963.	Study of endocrine glands and their secretions is called: (a) Pathology (b) Gerontology (c) Toxicology (d) Endocrinology	D
964.	Hormones differ from enzymes in the respect that they (a) Are found only in animals (b) Are found only in plants (c) Are used completely in metabolism (d) Are not used up in metabolism	C
965.	Solute concentration in the blood is monitored by osmoreceptors in: (a) Thalamus (b) Cerebrum (c) Blood Vessels (d) Hypothalamus	D
966.	Melanocyte stimulating hormone is produced by: (a) Anterior lobe of pituitary gland (b) Posterior lobe of pituitary gland (c) Intermediate lobe of pituitary gland (d) Thyroid gland	C
967.	In male, luteinizing hormone is also known as: (a) Prolactin (b) Progesterone (c) Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone (d) Oxytocin	C
968.	Hypothalamus releases all except: (a) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (b) Thyrotropin Releasing Factor (c) Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone (d) Adrenocorticotropin Releasing Factor	D
969.	Androgens are secreted by: (a) Ovaries (b) Thyroid Glands (c) Testes (d) Pituitary Glands	C
970.	Behavior
971.	The cyclic phenomenon which recurs eachb day, each lunar month, each day is: (a) Rhythms (b) Biological Rhythms (c) Circadian Rhythms (d) All of them	B
972.	The repeated sequence of events, which occurs at about 24 hours interval: (a) Biological Rhythms (b) Circadian Rhythms (c) Botha and b (d) None of them	B
973.	The animals which are active in the twilight hours: (a) Diurnal (b) Nocturnal (o) Corpuscular (d) Both b and c
974.	An innate mechanism in living organisms that controls the periodicity of many physiological functions: (a) Body Clock (b) Wall Clock (c) Biological Clock (d) None of them
975.	Heritable, intrinsic, stereotypic, inflexible and consummate, the behavior will be: (a) Instinctive (b) Innate (c) Shapping (d) Botha and b	D
976.	Catalogue of behavior or actions exhibited by animal used in ethology: (a) Picogram (b) Microgram (c) Milligram (d) Ethogram	D
977.	The most basic unit of innate behavior is (a) Action (b) Response (c) Arc (d) Reflex	D
978.	Orthokinesis and klinokinesis are concerned with:. (a) Learning (b) Orientation Behavior (c) Tropic Movement (d) Habituation	B
979.	Non heritable, Extrinsic, Permutable, adaptable and progressive the behavior will be: (a) Learning (b) Innate (c) Oriental (d) Imprinting	A
980.	Innate behaviour is all but: (a) Heritable (b) Intrinsic (c) Stereotypic (d) Flexible	D
981.	Trial and error learning has no role in: (a) Operant Learning (b) Classical Conditioning (c) Insight (d) Imprinting	C
982.	Which is non-directed orientation? (a) Taxis (b) Kinesis (c) Tropism (d) Imprinting	B
983.	Innate behaviour is all except: (a) Coded in DNA (b) Modified in individual's life span (c) Modified with species evolution (d) Programmed responses to external stimuli	B
984.	Advantage of pecking orders is to: (a) Avoid injury to the stronger animals (b) Protect territory (e) Find suitable mate (d) Assign specific role to individual subordinates	A
985.	Imprinting was studied by: (a) Timbergen (b) Skinner (c) Lorenz (d) Pavlov	C
986.	A sophisticated process in which the responses of the organism are modified as a result of experience is called: (a) Habituation (b) Imprinting (c) Conditioning (d) Learning	D
987.	This behaviour reduces an individual's. reproductive fitness while increasing thefitness of the family (a) Altruism (b) agonistic behaviour (c) Territoriality (d) Cooperation	A
988.	……is the learning that occurs during a sensitive or critical period in early life and is irreversible for the length of the period. (a) Habituation (b) Operant Conditioning (c) Trial and Error Learning (d) Imprinting	C
989.	The study of animal behaviour is called: (a) Ethnology (b) Ethology (c) Gerontology (d) Entomology	B
990.	"Mary had a little lamb, its fleece was white as snow. And everywhere that Mary went, the lamb was sure to go". The behaviour of the lamb is best described as (a) Habituation (b) Imprinting © Insight Learning (d) Classical Conditioning	A
991.	Animals that help other animals are expected to be (a) Stronger than other animals (b) Male (c) Female (d) Related to the animals they help	D
992.	An animal that sacrifices itself for its relatives is exhibiting: (a) Operant conditioning (b) Kin selection (c) Imprinting (d) Habituation	B
993.	Humans ignoring night sounds while asleep: (a) Classical Conditioning (b) Habituation (c) Operant Conditioning (d) Imprinting	B
994.	Response of an organism to stimuli is called: (a) Reaction (b) Behaviour (c) Feedback Mechanism (d) None of these	B
995.	Principles of natural selection are applicable to behaviour as well as physical characteristics .This was persuaded by: (a) Darwin (b) Morgan (c) De Vries. (d) Galton	D
996.	Any regularly occurring sequence of events in an organism is called: (a) Behaviour (b) Evolution (c) Biological Rhythm (d) None of these	C
997.	Circadian rhythms appear to be repeated sequences of events, which occur at ab0ut (a) One Month Interval (b) One Year Interval (c) 24 Hours Interval (d) One Season Interval	C
998.	In the liver of rabbit and mouse, deposition and utilization of glycogen is: (a) Nocturnal (b) Corpuscular (c) Diurnal (d) Monthly
999.	Activities are adapted to the regularly recurring changes in the external conditions by means of: (a) Central Nervous System (b) Biological Rhythms (c) Biological Clock (d) Behavioural Modification	C
1000.	In an experiment, four feeding tables were set up 50 meters to the north west, north east, south west and south east. The bees were released in the morning. Majority of them New to the feeding table to the: (a) North West (b) North East (c) South West (d) South East	A
1001.	All of the following are the characteristics of innate behaviour except (a) Innate responses are built in nervous system during development (b) Innate behaviour has survival value for the species (c) This behaviour is automatic and machine like (d) Innate responses are forgotten	D
1002.	Individuals inherit a suit of behaviors often called: (a) Electrocardiogram (b) Ethogram (c) Traits (d) Inheritance	B
1003.	One of the following is in example of a complex unlearned behaviour: (a) Web formation by spider (b) Migration of birds. (Human sucking reflex (d) Flight of honey bees towards flowers	D
1004.	Patellar reflex is also called (a) Muscle Contraction (b) Imprinting () Knee Jerk (d) Habituation	C
1005.	Some animals show a decrease in activity and metabolism during winter (a) Aestivation (b) Hibernation (c) Anhydrobiosis (d) Dispersal	B
1006.	Change in the speed of movement is called: (a) Orthokinesis (b) Klinokinesis (c) Geotropism (d) Taxis	A
1007.	Coordinated movement that occurs in response to an external stimulus is called: (a) Learning (b) Reflex (c) Orientation (d) None of these	C
1008.	Pavlov worked on: (a) Classical Conditioning (b) Instrumental Learning (c) Imprinting (d) Insight Learning	A
1009.	Cockroaches learn to run through a simple maze to find food. This is an example of: (a) Habituation (b) Insight Learning (c) Imprinting (d) Instrumental learning	A
1010.	A type of learning that uses reason,especially to form conclusions, inferences or judgments to solve a problem is called: (a) Operant conditioning (b) Classical conditioning (c) Insight learning (d) Habituation	A
1011.	A cow touches an electric fence and gets a shock. Thereafter it avoids the fence. This is an example of: (a) Classical conditioning (b) Instrumental conditioning (-ve enforcement) (c) Instrumental conditioning (+ve enforcement) (d) Innate behavior	B
1012.	Insight learning was studied by (a) Skinner (b) Konrad Lorenz (c) Kohler (d) Thorndike.	C
1013.	Relatively asocial animals include: (a) Ants (b) Termites (c) Mosquitoes (d) Bees	C
1014.	Troops of spider monkeys traveling together and feeding throughout the day within a core area of their territory is an example of: (a) Aggression (b) Dominance Hierarchies (c) Territorial Behaviour (d) Agonistic Behaviour.	D
1015.	Reproduction
1016.	The testes are male gonads having lobules: (a) 200 – 300 (b) 200 - 350 (c) 250-300 (d) 250 - 350	C
1017.	Male sex hormones testosterone is produced by the cell present between seminiferous tubules: (a) Soma Cell (b) Leyden Cell © Epididymis (d) None of them	B
1018.	The no. of vasa different to collect sperms from inside the testes and transferred to epididymis are: (a) 10-12 (b) 10-15 (c) 10-20 (d) 10 - 25	C
1019.	Epididymis is highly coiled duct with uncoiled length of (a) 10 Feet (b) 20 Feet (c) 30 Feet (d) 40 Feet	B
1020.	The duct that moves deep to the pelvic cavity and joins with seminal vesicle to form short ejaculatory duct is: (a) Vasa Efferentia (b) Vasa Deferentia © Vasa Recta (d) Epididymis	B
1021.	The sperm motility will be enhanced by fructose sugar, ascorbic acid and a coagulative enzyme: (a) Amylase (b) Ligase (c) Polymerase (d) Vesiculase	D
1022.	Semen is a white, sticky mixture of sperm and secretions of: (a) Cowper's Gland (b) Bulbourethral Gland (C) Prostate Gland (d) Accessory Gland	D
1023.	The viscosity of mucus of the uterus of female reproductive tract will be decreased in semen by: (a) Prostaglandins (b) Vesiculase. (c) hyaluronidase (d) all of them	A
1024.	Semen is slightly alkaline with a pH: (a) 7-7.6 (b) 7.2-7.5 (c) 7.2-7.8 (d) 7.2 7.6	D
1025.	The amount of semen propelled out during ejaculation is 2-5 ml, having sperms in per milliliter: (a) 10 - 150 Million (b) 20 150 Million (c) 20 - 100 Million (d) 10 - 100 Million	B
1026.	Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) is responsible for the stimulation / release of which hormone? (a) LH (b) Progesterone © Secretin (d) Insulin	A
1027.	Fertilization of the ovum normally occurs: (a) In the upper third of the oviduct (b) In the uterus (c) In the lower third of the oviduct (d) In Vagina	A
1028.	The human egg is swept through the oviduct towards the uterus by: (a) The beating of the egg's cilia (b) Rhythmic contraction of oviduct (c) Rhythmic contraction of the uterus (d) Beating of cilia in the oviduct	A
1029.	Embryo implants in the of the uterus. (a) Perimetrium (b) Myometrium (c) Endometrium d) Cervix	C
1030.	Which will occur as a result of non-descent of the testes? (a) Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body (b) Sperm will have no means of exit from the body (c) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes (d) Viable sperms will not be produced	D
1031.	Within the ovary, progesterone is produced by (a) Corpus Albicans (b) Corpus Luteum (c) Tertiary Follicles (d) Primary Follicles	B
1032.	The basie difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that: (a) During spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced (b) The mature ovum is haploid while the sperm is 2n (c) Spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only (d) In oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced and in spermatogenesis four mature sperms are produced	D
1033.	The uterine layer which is shed with each monthly cycle (a) Endometrium (b) Perimetrium (c) Tunica Media (d) Myometrium	A
1034.	Which is the correct order of the stages of menstrual cycle? (a) Follicular phase-ovulation-menstruation — Luteal phase (b) Ovulation - luteal – menstruation follicular phase © Follicular phase-ovulation - luteal phase menstruation (d) Luteal phase-follicular phase – ovulation menstruation	C
1035.	Reproduction is very important for the survival of: (a) Species (b) Individual (c) Population (d) Both a and b	D
1036.	Human sperm was first discovered in 1677 by: (a) Morgan (b) Landsteiner (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Sutton	C
1037.	Human ovum was discovered in 1928 by: (a) Hertwig (b) Edgar Allen (c) Von Baer (d) Haeckel	B
1038.	The optimum temperature for sperm development is about: (A)20°C. (b) 35 C (c) 37°C (d) 40°C	B
1039.	The process of spermatogenesis takes place in: (a) Seminiferous Tubules (b) Epididymis (c) Vas Deferens (d) Vasa Efferentia	A
1040.	Testosterone is produced by: (a) Sertoli Cells (b) Leydig Cells (c) Seminiferous Tubules (d) Hypothalamus	B
1041.	Vas deferens has a length of about: (a) 10 cm (b) 20cm (c)30 cm (d) 45cm	C
1042.	Ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of: (a) Vasa efferentia and epididymis (b) Epididymis and vas deferens (c) Vasa efferentia and vas deferens (d) Duct of seminal vesicle and vas deferens	D
1043.	How much semen a human male ejaculates? (a) 2 cm (b) 5cm (c) 10cm (d) 15cm	B
1044.	The enzyme vesiculase is present in the secretion of: (a) Seminal Vesicles (b) Prostate Gland (c) Cowper's Gland (d) All of these	A
1045.	Prostaglandins are chemically (a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins (c) Lipid (d) Enzymes	C
1046.	Cowper's gland are also called: (a) Seminal Vesicles (b) Prostate Gland (c) Bulbourethral Glands (d) Brunner's Gland	C
1047.	Nourishment to spermatozoa is provided by: (a) Leydig Cells (b) Sertoli (c) Parietal Cells (d) Chief Cells	B
1048.	Adult testes are oval organs of length: (a) 2 cm (b) 5cm (c) 7cm. (d) 9cm	B
1049.	The process of the maturation of spermatids into motile and active sperms is called: (a) Spermatogenesis (b) Spermiogenesis (c) Ejaculation (d) None of them	B
1050.	One primary spermatocyte gives rise to: (a) Two Sperms (b) Four Sperms (c) Eight Sperms (d) One Sperm
1051.	Which part of the sperm contains mitochondria? (a) Acrosome (b) Neck (c) Middle Piece (d) Tail	C
1052.	Sertoli cells produce: (a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Follicle stimulating hormone (c) Inhibin (d) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone	C
1053.	If one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum before birth, this condition is called: (a) Cryptorchidism (b) Immaturation (c) Degeneration (d) Gynaecomastia	C
1054.	Ovaries have a length of: (a) 1cm (b) 3.5cm © 5cm (d) 7cm	C
1055.	The wall of uterus is composed of: (a) Perimetriu (b) Myometrium (c) Endometrium (d) All of these	D
1056.	Primary oocyte undergoes meiotic division to form: (a) Two ova and two polar bodies (b) Three ova and one polar body (c) One ovum and three polar bodies (d) Four ova only	C
1057.	Which glands are present in females? (a) Cowper's Gland (b) Seminal Vesicles (c) Prostate Gland (d) Bartholin's Gland	D
1058.	Infertility in men is mot often caused by: (a) Endometriosis (b) Varicocele (c) Uterine Fibroids (d) None of them.	B
1059.	the spontaneous loss a foetus before the 20th week of pregnancy is called. (a) Preterm delivery (b) Miscarriage (c) Parturition (d) Ectopic Pregnancy	B
1060.	Which of the following is a gram negative bacteria? (a) Neisseria Gonorrhoeae (b) Treponema pallidum (c) Both of these (d) None of them	C
1061.	red, painless primary lesion called a chancre is formed in the infection of: (a) Gonorrhea (b) Syphilis (c) AIDS (d) All of these	B
1062.	Human ovum has a diameter of about: (a) 2um (b) 20um (c) 100um (d) 10um.	B
1063.	Development and aging
1064.	The study of getting old or aging is called: (a) Gerontology (B) Development (c) Herpetology (d) Embryology	A
1065.	The process of conversion from simple to more complex form is called: (a) Cleavage (b) Growth (c) Development (d) Blastula	C
1066.	After 36 hours of fertilization, the first cleavage division produce two identical cells: (a) Micrommeres (b) Macromeres (c) Blastomeres (d) Blastocysts	C
1067.	A berry shaped cluster of 16 or more cells is: (a) Morula (b) Blastula (c) Gastrula (d) Norula	A
1068.	Embryonic membrane which is a trophoblastic derivative: (a) Amnion (b) Chorion (c) Allantois (d) Both b and	B
1069.	The protective coat which surrounds the embryo is known as: (a) Amnion (b) Chorion (© Allantois (d) Chorio Allantois	A
1070.	The outer layer of the blastocyst, which later attaches to the uterus, is the: (a) Deciduous (b) Trophoblast (c) Amnion (d) Inner cell mass	B
1071.	Identical twins result from the fertilization of (a) One ovum by one sperm (B) One ovum by two sperms (c) Two ova by two sperms (d) Two ova by one sperm	A
1072.	The most important hormone in initiating and maintaining lactation after birth is: (a) Estrogen (b) FSH (c) Prolactin (d) Oxytocin	C
1073.	Which germinal layer gives rise to the lining of the digestive tract? (a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm (C) Endoderm (d) Epidermis	C
1074.	Mesoderm forms: (a) Blood vessels (b) Bone (c) Muscles (d) All of these	D
1075.	End of cleavage is marked by the formation of: (a) Three Embryonic Layers (b) The Archenteron (c) The Blastula (d) Zygote	C
1076.	Gastrulation is marked by the formation of: (a) Blastula. (b) Three embryonic layers (c) Blastocoel (d) Zygote	B
1077.	Which hormone is released by the anterior pituitary and directly causes ovulation? (a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Progesterone (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Estrogen	A
1078.	Which hormone causes the lining of the uterus to thicken in preparation for implantation of the embryo? (a) Luteinizing hormone (b) Progesterone (c) Follicle stimulating hormone (d) Androgen	B
1079.	The negative physiological changes in our body are called: (a) Degeneration (b) Abnormalities (c) Aging (d) Regeneration	C
1080.	First cleavage produces two blastomeres after hours of fertilization? (a) 3 (B) 24 (c) 36 (d) 63	C
1081.	Early cleavage produces a berry-shaped cluster of 16 or more cells called: (a) Blastula (b) Morula (c) Gastrula (d) Blastocyst	B
1082.	Blastocyst consists of: (a) Inner cell mass (b) Trophoblast (@) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1083.	Which one of the following is a trophoblast derivative? (a) Amnion (b) Chorion (c) Allantois (d) Yolk sac	B
1084.	The process in which the two layered embryonic disc transforms into a three layered embryo is known as: (a) Blastulation (b) Cleavage (c) Gastrulation (d) Organogenesis	C
1085.	Several layers of follicle cells surrounding the ovum collectively known as: (a) Zona Pellucida (b) Corona Radiata (c) Corpus Albicans (d) None of these	A
1086.	Zona pellucida is made up of: (a) Fats (b) Polysaccharides (c) Glycoprotein (d) Cellulose	C
1087.	Mesodermal cells give rise to: (a) Nervous System (b) Notochord (0) Skin Epidermis (d) None of these	D
1088.	Neurulation is the first major event of (a) Blastulation (b) Gastrulation (e) Organogenesis (d) non of these	C
1089.	Neural tube is formed Cleavage on: (a) 2nd day (b) 12th day (c) 22nd day (d) 20th day	C
1090.	Acetabularia crenulata has: (a) Umbrella like cap (b) Irregular cap (c) No cap (d) Both caps	B
1091.	Yellow cytoplasm in the fertilized egg of an ascidian gives rise to: (a) Larval Epidermis (b) Muscle Cells (c) Gut (d) Nervous System	B
1092.	Which of the following newt species is pigmented? (a) Triton Taeniatus (b) Triton Cristatus @ Both of these (d) None of these	A
1093.	A signaling molecule that acts directly on cells to produce specific cellular response depending on its local concentration is known as: (a) Gene (b) Morphogen (c) Neurotransmitter (d) None of these	B
1094.	The process of giving birth is known as: (a) Gestation (b) Micturition (c) Parturition (d) Pregnancy	C
1095.	In human, the placenta is: (a) Hemochorial and discoid shape (b) Epitheliochorial and diffuse (c) Endotheliochorial and zonary (d) None of these	A
1096.	How soon after fertilization occurs within the uterine tube does the blastocyst begin implantation? (a) Within minutes (b) By day 1 (© By day 2 (d) By day 7	D
1097.	Gastrulation establishes the three primary germ layers during which period of development? (a) Week 1 (6) Week 3 (c) Week 5 (d) Week 8	B
1098.	A pregnancy in which the embryo implants in any site other than the uterus is known as: (a) Normal pregnancy (b) Ectopic pregnancy (c) Premature birth (d) Delayed pregnancy	B
1099.	A pregnancy where more than one foetus develops simultaneously is called: (a) Multiple pregnancy (b) Ectopic pregnancy (c) Abnormal pregnancy(d) None of these	A
1100.	Placenta produces: (a) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) (b) Estrogen (c) Progesterone (d) All of these	D
1101.	Umbilical cord consists of: (a) Two arteries only (b) One vein only (c) Two arteries and one vein (d) No blood vessel	C
1102.	How much amniotic fluid surrounds the baby at full term (40 weeks gestation)? (a) 200ml (b) 20ml (C) 300ml (d) 600ml	D
1103.	Rubella or German measles disease is caused by: (a) Virus (b) Bacteria (c) Protozoan (d) Helminth	A
1104.	The increase in size of different organs or parts of an organism at various rates is called: (a) Aging (b) Allometric Growth (c) Isometric Growth (d) None of these	B
1105.	Secretion and yielding of milk by females after giving birth is called: (a) Parturition (b) Gestation (C) Lactation (d) Placentation	C
1106.	During which period of development, the human embryo is termed as foetus? (a) 2nd Week (b) 4th Week (c) 6th Week (d) 9th Week	D
1107.	Inheritance
1108.	Transmission of genes governing various characters from parents to offspring (a) Inheritance (b) Trait (c) Variation (d) None of these	A
1109.	It's the basic unit of biological information (a) Genotype (b) Phenotype (0) Allele (d) None of these	A
1110.	Position of a gene on a chromosome is called: (a) Focus (b) Locus (c) Alleles (d) None of these	B
1111.	The two members of a gene pair are called. (a) Traits (b) Gene pool (c) Alleles (d) None of these	C
1112.	It is the form of appearance of a trait. (a) Pleiotropy (b) Phenotype (c) Genotype (d) None of these	B
1113.	Plant used by Mendel in his experiments was (a) Pisum Satirum (b) Triticum (c) Oryza Sativa (d) None of these	A
1114.	The cross of a phenotypically dominant individual with its recessive is called? (a) Test Cross (b) Monohybrid Cross (C) F1Cross (d) None of these	A
1115.	The chance of an event to occur is called: (a) Paleography (b) Probability (c) Epiphysis (d) None of these	B
1116.	A hybrid red flower (Rr) is crossed with a white flower. What %age of the offspring will be red? (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75%	A
1117.	A red flower is crossed with a white flower and all the offspring are pink. Which law of inheritance does this follow? (a) Dominance (b) Segregation (c) Incomplete Dominance (d) Co-dominance	C
1118.	Which of the following crosses best demonstrates the law of segregation?. (a) AA x aa (b) aa x aa (e) Aa x aa (d) Aa x Aa	A
1119.	A couple has two children. One child has blood type A and the other has blood type O. What are all the possible blood types of the parents? (a) Either both have type A or one has type A and other has type O or one has A and the other has type B (b) There is only one possibility, both parents have type A blood (c) There is only one possibility, both parents have type O blood (d) There is only possibility, one parent has type A and the other has type o	D
1120.	Which is true about blood type? (a) Type A is dominant over type B (b) Type B is dominant over type A (c) Type AB is dominant over both A and B (d) Types A and B are dominant over type O	D
1121.	A man with haemophilia marries a woman who has normal haemoglobin and is not carrier? Which of the following is true? (a) None of their children will have the disease nor will they be carriers (b) All the boys will have the disease (c) All the girls will have the disease (d) All the girls will be carriers	D
1122.	If a man is colour-blind and his wife is a carrier, which of the following is true? (a) Each girl has a 50% chance of being colour - blind (b) No girl will be colour- blind because girls cannot be colour-blind (c) All the boys will be carriers (d) All the girls will be carriers	A
1123.	A test cross is done to: (a) Determine if cross over has occurred (b) Prevents sex-linked traits from being passed on (c) Determine if an organism exhibiting the dominant phenotype is carrying a recessive Allele for that trait (d) Prevents cross over from occurring	C
1124.	A farmer planted 1,000 seeds of corn. The offspring were 544 tall with yellow seeds, 188 tall with green seeds, 183 short with yellow seeds and 64 short with green seeds. What were the genotypes of the parents?. (a) TTYY tyy (b) TYy TYY (c) TYy tyy (d) ttyy tyy	A
1125.	Chances for a son or daughter in human birth are: (a) 3:1 Between Son and Daughter (b) 1:3 Between Son and Daughter (C) 1:1 Between Son and Daughter (d) None of these	C
1126.	The number of linkage groups in man is: (a) 02 (b) 23 (C) 46 (d) 92	C
1127.	A man of blood group A marries a woman of blood group B and they have one child. Which one of the following statements about the child's blood is correct? (a) It could be group A only (b) It could be group AB only (c) It could be group A or group B only (d) It could be any of the groups A, B. AB, O	D
1128.	How many different kinds of gametes will be formed by an individual, who is heterozygous for four gene pairs? (a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 30	B
1129.	A woman with normal colour vision whose father was red-green blind, married a red green colour-blind man. What is the probability of her first-born child being red green colour blind? (a) 1.0 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.025	B
1130.	Two parents each of blood groups A, have a daughter of blood group O. What is the probability that their next child has blood group O? (a) 0.125 (b) 0.25 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75	B
1131.	What are the phenotypes of the parent of a colour blind son and non-carrier daughter with normal colour vision? FATHER MOTHER (a) Carrier Normal (b) Colour Blind Carrier (C) Normal Carrier (d) Normal Colour Blind	D
1132.	When expression of a biological character is observed in variable intensity, it is due to the effect of: (a) Multiple Alleles (b) Co-dominance. (c) Epistasis (d) Polygenic inheritance	D
1133.	Inheritance of skin colour in man is controlled by eight pairs of genes which are: (a) Linked (b) Co-dominant (c) Multiple alleles (d) Assorting independently	D
1134.	Baldness is a: (a) Sex related trait (b) Sex limited trait (c) Sex influenced trait (d) None of these	C
1135.	All of the following are examples of x-linked recessive disorders except: (a) Colour Blindness (b) Diabetes Insipidus (e) Haemophilia (d) Alport's Syndrome	D
1136.	Holandric inheritance is related to the inheritance of gene present on: (a) X-Chromosome (b) Y-Chromosome (c) Autosome (d) None of these	B
1137.	SRY gene on Y- chromosome of man determines: (a) Height (b) Skin Colour (c) Haemophilia (d) Maleness	D
1138.	In drosophila, the gene for eye colour is associated with: (a) Autosome (b) X-Chromosome (c) Y-Chromosome (d) Both b and c	B
1139.	T.H. Morgan made the first demonstration of a sex-linked trait in (a) 1941 (b) 1930 (c) 1910 (d) 1859	C
1140.	XXY set of chromosomes in drosophila produces a fertile: (a) Male (b) Female (c) Both of these (d) None of these	B
1141.	WZ-ZZ type of sex-determination pattern was discovered in 1914 by (a) Morgan (b) Mendel (c) Sieler (d) Haeckel	C
1142.	Map units are often called: (a) Linkage groups (b) Centimorgans (c) Recombinants (d) None of these	B
1143.	A gamete without any sex chromosome is called: (a) Recombinant (b) Mutant (c) Nullo Gamete (d) Wild Type	C
1144.	The proportion of recombinant types between two gene pairs as compared to the sum of all combinations is called: (a) Crossing over (b) Gene linkage (c) Recombination frequency (d) Mutation	C
1145.	Farther apart two genes, the probability that a cross over will occur will be: (a) Higher (b) Lower (c) Equal (d) None of them	A
1146.	As a result of a test cross, there will be no linkage between the genes if: (a) All four phenotypic combinations (parental and recombinants) are produced in equal 1:1:1:1 ratio (b) are parental types and less recombinant types (c) Only parental types are produced (d) Only recombinant types are produced	A
1147.	In human, genes for sickle cell anemia, Leukemia and albinism are found on chromosome (a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 22 (d) X-Chromosome	B
1148.	The following is an example of polygenic inheritance (a) Height (b) Weight (c) Intelligence (d) All of these	D
1149.	The Bombay phenotype in human is an example of: (a) Pleiotropy (b) Polygenic Inheritance (c) Linkage (d) Epistasis	D
1150.	In case of Bombay phenotype, individuals are genotypically like A, B or AB but phenotypically are: (a) A (b) B (C) AB (d) O	d
1151.	When the immune response of the mother against the Rh factor has already been exposed and her antibodies can cross the placenta and destroy the red blood cells of Rh-positive foetus, this condition is referred as: (a) Immunosuppression (b) Erythroblastosis fetalis (c) Transfusion (d) Anemia	B
1152.	Blood group system other than "ABO" and "Rh" are: (a) MNS (b) Kell (c) Lutheran (d) All of these	D
1153.	The genetic basis of ABO blood system was explained in 1925 by:. (a Landsteiner (b) Bernstein (c) Sturtevant (d) Sutton	B
1154.	The gene "I" of "ABO" blood groups is present on: (a) Chromosome 11 (b) Chromosome 9 (c) X-Chromosome (d) Y-Chromosome	B
1155.	Tongue rolling in human is controlled by a single: (a) Recessive Gene (b) Dominant Gene (c) Polygene (d) None of these	B
1156.	Both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same in case of: (a) Co-dominance (b) Over Dominance (c) Incomplete Dominance (d) Complete Dominance	A
1157.	Alkaptonuria is an inborn biochemical disorder in which the person excretes: (a) Albumen (b) Homogentisic Acid (c) HCL (d) Acetic Acid	B
1158.	If a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf planet, the cross is called: (a) Test Cross (b) Back Cross (c) Monohybrid Cross (d) Dihybrid Cross	C
1159.	Segregation of alleles occurs at the time of: (a) Cleavage (b) Meiosis (c) Fertilization (d) Crossing over.	D
1160.	Chromosomes and DNA
1161.	It is not needed for genetic engineering (a) Mesosôme (b) Vector (c) Molecular Scissor (d) None	A
1162.	Restriction endonuclease is a: (a) Gene (b) Vector (c) Enzyme (d) None of these	C
1163.	Eco RI is the commonly used: (a) Polymerase (b) Ligase © Restriction Enzyme (d) None of these	C
1164.	Plasmid is found in: (a) Bacteriophage (B) E.Coli (c) Entamoeba (d) None of these	A
1165.	PSC 1021 Nested has antibiotic-resistant gene for (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (C) Penicillin (d) None of these	A
1166.	It binds the foreign gene into the plasmid: (a) Transcriptase (b) Ligase (c) Isomerase (d) None of these	B
1167.	DNA polymerase is extracted form: (a) Term Terrestrial (b) None of these (c) Thermos Equation (d) Vinus	B
1168.	The entire human genome was published in: (a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 2001 (d) None	D
1169.	It is a preferable vehicle for biotechnology product: (a) Milk (b) Blood (C) Urine (d) None	B
1170.	A chromosome with unequal length of its arms is called: (a) Metacentric (b) Submetacentric (c) Acrocentric (d) Telocentric	B
1171.	In Hershey and Chase experiment, P32 Tabelled bacteriophages allowed to infect the bacteria. During analysis P32 activity was detected: (a) In Culture Medium (b) On the Surface of Bacterial Cell (c) Inside the bacterial cell (d) Both a and b	C
1172.	In Meselson and Stahl experiment, the DNA from sample at 20 minutes, after centrifugation it made sediments at the: (@) Top (b) Bottom (c) Intermediate (d) Top and Intermediate	C
1173.	Which of the following acts as stop codon? (@) UGG (b) UGC (c) UAG (d) UGU	C
1174.	In mitochondria UGA colon acts to specify instead of stop codon: (a) Arginine (b) Valine @ Glutamic Acid (d) Tryptophan	D
1175.	If the amount of adenine in DNA of a bacterial cell is 36% of the total nitrogenous bases, what will be the amount of guanine in the DNA of a cell in next generation? (a) 14% (b) 28% (c) 36% (d) 64%	A
1176.	If a mRNA is synthesized with all the different codons, what is the minimum number of amino acids in the protein that is formed by mRNA? (a) 64 Amino Acids (b) 62 Amino Acids (C) 60 Amino acids (d) None of these	C
1177.	In eukaryotic mRNA molecule, there are 90 nucleotides involved in translation process. What is the number of amino acids in the protein formed by this mRNA molecule? (a) 29 Amino acids (b) 30 Amino acids (c) 45 Amino acids (d) 90 Amino acids	C
1178.	Q19) In Griffith experiment mice developed pneumonia when they were injected with: (a) R-Type Bacteria (b) heat killed s-type bacteria (c) Heat killed r-type bacteria (d) Head killed s-type bacteria along with liver type bacteria	D
1179.	If the codon consisted of only two nucleotides there would be how many possible codons? (a) 4 (b) 8 © 20 d) 16	D
1180.	All of the following about the structure of DNA are correct except: (a) DNA is a polymer (b) DNA contains deoxyribose (c) Two strands are connected by hydrogen bonding (d) Adenine bonds to guanine	D
1181.	DNA can be cut into small pieces with: (a) Introns (b) Exons (C) PCR (d) Restriction Enzymes	D
1182.	All of the following are correct about RNA processing except:. (a) It is a rare occurrence and results in mutations (b) Introns are removed (c) It occurs after transcription (d) The Initial Transcription is Longer Than the Final Transcript	A
1183.	Polyploidy results from: (a) Nondisjunction (b) Aneuploidy (c) Down Syndrome (d) RNA Processing	A
1184.	XXY syndrome is also known as: (a) Turner's Syndrome (b) Down Syndrome (c) Klinefelter's Syndrome (d) Mutation	C
1185.	Which of the following are non-sense codons? (a) AUG (b) UAA (c) CUA (d) All of these	B
1186.	In bacteria, the newly synthesized mRNA is released in: (a) Nucleus (b) Cytoplasm (c) Mitochondria (d) Both bando	B
1187.	Down's syndrome is also known as: (a) Mongolism (b) Gigantism (c) Disjunction (d) None of these	A
1188.	The genetic origin of Down's syndrome was discovered in 1959 by: (a) L. Down (b) J. Lejeune (c) H. Klinefelter (d)H. Tumor	B
1189.	Which of the following plays a role in melanin production? (a) Arginine (b) Phenylalanine (c) Vitamins (d) Methionine	A
1190.	In place of glutamic acid in the haemoglobin of a normal person, the haemoglobin of a sickle -cell anemic person contains: (a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Valine (d) Glycine	C
1191.	Who was the first to induce mutations using x- rays in drosophila? (a) Morgan (b) Sturtevant (C) Sutton (d) Muller	A
1192.	Change in the number of chromosomes due addition or loss of one or more chromosomes is called: (a) Aneuploidy (b) Euploidy (c) Polyploidy (d) Ploidy	A
1193.	Shifting of a segment of one chromosome to another non-homologous chromosome is known as: (a) Inversion (b) Deletion (c) Duplication (D) Translocation	D
1194.	The mutations which occur naturally and Automatically due to I internal factors are called (a) Spontaneous mutations (b) induced mutations (c) Both of these (d) None	A
1195.	Mutations that occur in more than one percent of the population are called: (a) Transcription (b) Polymorphisms (c) Metastasis (d) Recombination	B
1196.	In lac operon, they gene code for: (a) B-galactosidase (b) Transacetylase (c) Permease (d) Polymerase	C
1197.	Specific regulatory protein the activator is responsible for: (a) Negative gene regulation (b) Positive gene regulation (c) Both of these (d) Gene suppression	B
1198.	Which of the following acts as a stop codon in mitochondrial DNA? (a) UGA (b) AGA (C) AGG (d) Both b and c	D
1199.	The enzyme that removes the amino acid from tRNA present in P site and binds it to the newly coming amino acid with the help of peptide bond is: (a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA Helicase (c) Peptidyl Transferase (d) DNA Ligase	C
1200.	Genetic code is degenerate" means (a) An amino acid can be encoded by more than one codon (b) A particular codon specifies more than one amino acid (c) Genetic code is quite universal (d) There are four nonsense codons	B
1201.	Protein coding sequences in the eukaryotic mRNA are called: (a) Introns (b) Exons (c) Anticodon (d) None of these	B
1202.	Removal of introns and maturation of primary mRNA to secondary or functional mRNA IS called: (a) Transcription (b) Translation (c) RNA Splicing (d) Translocation	C
1203.	RNA polymerase-II synthesizes: (a) Mrna (b) rRNA (C) tRNA (d) DNA	A
1204.	Loop like structure known as GC hairpin causes: (a) Imitation of mRNA Synthesis (b) Elongation of mRNA Chain (c) Termination of mRNA Synthesis (d) All of these	C
1205.	The RNA polymerase subunit which is required for RNA polymerase to bind to the promoter during transcription is:. (a) Beta (b) Sigma Factor (c) Beta (d) Sigma	B
1206.	The joining of Okazaki fragments is carried out by: (a) DNA Polymerase (b) DNA Helicase (c) DNA Ligase (d) RNA Polymerase	C
1207.	The enzyme that synthesizes both daughter strands of DNA along the template during replication process is: (a) DNA Polymerase-I (b) DNA Polymerase - II (c) DNA Polymerase - III (d) All of these	C
1208.	A short oligonucleotide strand acting as start site for the activity of DNA polymerase is known as: (a) Coding Strand (b) DNA Template (C) Primer (d) Promoter	C
1209.	The single strands of DNA are prevented to pair up again during DNA replication by specific proteins called: (a) Single stranded binding (SSB) proteins (b) Sigma Factor (c) Primers (d) Complexes	B
1210.	During DNA replication, the turns of DNA duplex are opened by: (a) DNA Polymerase (b) DNA Helicase (C) DNA Primase (d) DNA Gyrase	D
1211.	Final conclusion, that the replication of DNA occurs according to the semi-conservative model came from the experiments in 1958 by: (a) Hershey and Chase (b) Beadle and Tatum (b) H. Huxley and A.F Huxley (d) Meselson and Stahl	D
1212.	Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed in 1902 by: (a) Walter Sutton (b) Theodor Boveri (c) Both of these (d) T. H Morgan	C
1213.	In prokaryotes, the synthesis of different polypeptides are regulated by many adjacent structural genes collectively known as: (a) Promoter (b) Exons (c) Introns (d) Operon	D
1214.	The term genetics was coined in 1906 by: (a) Johansson (b) Bateson (c) De Vries (d) Sutton	B
1215.	Nucleosome has a thickness of:. (a) 2nm (b) 10nm (c) 5nm (d) 20nm	B
1216.	The euchromatin region of chromatin fibre is: (a) Non-condensed (b) Capable of gene expression (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1217.	Chromosome is made up of: (a) 40% DNA only (b) 60% Protein only (c) 60% DNA and 40% Protein (d) 40% DNA and 60% Protein	D
1218.	Which part of the chromosome contains a useless sequence of DNA known as junk DNA? (a) Primary Constriction (b) Secondary Constriction (c) Telomere (d) Satellite	D
1219.	Secondary constriction gives rise to: (a) Nuclear membrane (b) Nucleoli (c) Ribosomes (d) Spindle Fibres.	B
1220.	Evolution
1221.	Who wrote an essay on " Principle of Population"? (a) Linnaeus (b) Lamarck (c) Mathus (d) None of these	C
1222.	Cuvier contributed much to the science of: (a) Botany (b) Paleontology (c) Zoology (d) None of these	B
1223.	Lyell published principles of: (a) Population (b) Geology (c) Ecology (d) None of these	B
1224.	Darwin collected 13 types of finches on: (a) Java Island (b) None of these (c) Galapagos Island (d) Malta	C
1225.	Which one is not related to Darwin's theory? (a) Over production (b) Use and misuse of organs (c) Struggle for existence (d) None of these	b
1226.	The study of geographical distribution of organisms: (a) Biogeography (b) Biophysics (c) Bibliography (d) None of these	A
1227.	A population is a localized group of individuals belonging to the same: (a) Species (b) Genes © Family (d) None of these	A
1228.	It is the change in allele frequency by chance: (a) Selection (b) Genetic Drift (c) Migration (d) None of these	B
1229.	Selection directly acts on: (a) Phenotype (b) Genotype (c) Allele (d) None of these	B
1230.	The smallest biological unit that can evolve. over time is (a) Cell (b) Individual (e) Species (d) None of these	C
1231.	The random loss of alleles in a population is called: (a) Mutation (b) Selection (c) Gene Flow (d) Genetic Drift	D
1232.	Human appendix, coccyx and nictitating membrane of the eye are: (a) Vestigial Organs (b) Homologous Organs (c) Analogous Organs (d) Embryonic Organs	A
1233.	The existing species are the modified descendants of pre-existing ones according to: (a) Theory of Special Creation (b) Theory of Organic Evolution (c) Uniformitarianism (d) Theory of Catastrophism	B
1234.	Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, which expression represents the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype? (a) p2 (b) 2pq (c) q2 (d) q	D
1235.	Which one of the following would cause the Hardy-Weinberg principle to be inaccurate? (a) The size of the population is very large (b) Individuals mate with one another at random (c) Natural selection is present (d) There is no source of new copies of alleles from outside the population	C
1236.	The study of birds is called: (a) Ornithology (b) Ichthyology (c) Entomology (d) Herpetology	A
1237.	Similarity in characteristics resulting from common ancestry is known as: (a) Analogy (b) Homology (c) Evolutionary Relationship (d) Phylogeny	D
1238.	The parts of the body used extensively to cope. with the environment become larger and stronger, while those that are not used deteriorate was argued by: (a) Charles Darwin (b) Alfred Wallace (c) Carolus (d) Lamarck	D
1239.	Which one of the following pairs represent analogous features? (a) Elephant tusks and human incisors (b) Insect wings and bat wings (C Mammal forelimbs and bird forelimb (d) Reptilian heart and mammalian heart	B
1240.	In which of the following situations would evolution be slowest for an inter breeding population? Migration Selection Variation (a) Absent Low Low (b) Absent High High (c) High Low High (d) High High Low	B
1241.	Which of the following ideas was not part of Charles Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection? (a) Organisms produce more offsprings than the environment can support (b) Variation between individuals arise by gene mutation (c) Only those individuals that are best adapted to the environment survive and reproduce (d) Individuals compete for space and resources	A
1242.	All of the following statements about evolution are true except: (a) Evolution occurs more rapidly at some times than at others (b) Evolution is directed by changes in environment (C) Single organisms as well as populations do commonly evolve (d) Evolution is not always a slow, gradual process	A
1243.	Which of the following is a transition fossil? (a) Reptile (b) Amphibians (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Apes
1244.	Modern horse belongs to the genus: (a) Eohippus (b) Equus (c) Mesohippus (d) Pliohippus	B
1245.	All of the following are true of homologous structures except: (a)They demonstrate common ancestry (b) An example is the wing of bat and the wing of a fly (c) An example is the wing of bat and a person's arm (d) They are not the same thing as analogous organs	B
1246.	The age of earth according to scientific evidence is closest to: (a) 4000 years old (b) 6000 years old (c)4 million years old (d) 4 billion years old	D
1247.	Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution? (a) Wildebeests separated from each other by a newly formed river are now separate species (b) Whales and fish have a streamlined appearance because they evolved in the same environment (c) Insects and the flowers they pollinate have evolved together over millions of years (d) Polydactyly, having extra fingers, is common in the amish of pennsylvania	A
1248.	The gill pouches of mammals and birds embryos are: (a) Supportive "ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny (B) Homologous structures (c) Used by the embryos to breathe (d) Evidence for the degeneration of unused body parts	B
1249.	Darwin's theory, as presented in "The origin of species", mainly concerned: (a) How new species arise (b) The origin of life (c) How adaptations evolve (d) The genetics of evolution	A
1250.	The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is: (a) A Particular cell (b) An Individual organism C) A Species (d) A Population	C
1251.	Selection acts directly on: (a) Phenotype (b) Genotype c) The entire genome (d) The entire gene pool	D
1252.	A gene pool consists of: (a) All the alleles exposed to natural selection (b) The total of all alleles present in a population © The entire genome of a reproducing individual (d) All the gametes in a population	D
1253.	In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, 16% of the individuals show the recessive trait. What is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population? (a) 0.84 (b) 0.36 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.48	A
1254.	Concept of "Uniformitarianism was proposed by (a) Louis Agassiz (b) George Cuvier (c) Hutton and Lyell (d) Darwin	C
1255.	Fossil record indicates that eukaryotes evolved from prokaryotes somewhere: (a) 2 million years ago (b) 2000 years ago (c) 20 million years ago (d) 2 billion years ago	D
1256.	Endosymbiont hypothesis was first proposed by: (a) Linnaeus (b) Lamarck (c) Lynn Margulis (d) Wallace	C
1257.	A structural change in the body of organism involving deviation from normal, inducedin life time of an individual due to certain change in environment or in function i.e. use or disuse of an organ is called: (a) Mutation (b) Selection (C) Acquired Character (d) Survival of the Fittest	C
1258.	How many types of finches were observed by Darwin in the Galapagos Islands? (a)3 (b) 13 (C) 5 (d) 8	B
1259.	Salient feature of Darwin - Wallace theory is: (a) Variation (b) Natural selection (c) Speciation (d) All of these	D
1260.	What does natural selection use as the raw material for better survivors? (a) Variations (b) Mutations (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1261.	Haeckel proposed: (a) Biogenetic Law (b) Theory of Catastrophism (c) Theory of Special Creation. (d) Neo-Darwinism	A
1262.	The red fox and the kit fox provide an example of two species that have undergone: (a) Convergent Evolution (b) Parallelism (c) Divergent Evolution (d) Artificial Selection	C
1263.	Example of genetic drift is: (a) Bottleneck effect (b) The founder effect (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1264.	When populations of a species that share the same habitat become reproductively isolated from each other, it leads to: (a) Sympatric speciation (b) Allopatric speciation (c) Parapatric speciation (d) No speciation	A
1265.	Life originated: (a) 3 million years ago (b) 3000 years ago (c) 3.5 billion years ago (d) 30000 years ago.	C
1266.	Man and human Environment
1267.	The terms Ecology was proposed by: (a) Linnaeus (b) Haeckel (c) Morgan (d) All of these	A
1268.	Photosynthetic organism in an ecosystem are (a) Predators (b) Producers (c) Parasites (d) All of these	B
1269.	The major regional ecological community is called. (a) Biosphere (b) Biome (c) Niche (d) None of these	B
1270.	It is a thin layer around earth where life can exist: (a) Biosphere (b) Biome (c) Niche (d) Water	A
1271.	The role of an organism in an ecosystem is called: (a) Niche (b) Habitat (c) Predator (d) None of these	A
1272.	Ecological study of a species is called: (a) Autecology (b) Synecology (c) Succession (d) Ecology	A
1273.	Study of a population or community is called: (a) Synecology (b) Biome (c) Antecology (d) Ecology	A
1274.	Which one is biotic factor? (a) Air (b) Soil C) Plant (d) Light	C
1275.	The succession initiating on a rock is called: (a) Lithosere (b) Halosere (c) Hydrosere (d) Mesosphere	A
1276.	Succession starting on sand is called (a Psammosere (b) Halosere (c) Xerosere (d) Hydrosere	A
1277.	An Association between an algae and a Fungus is called: (a) Parasitism (b) Lichen (C) Mycorrhizae (d) All of them	B
1278.	The association between fungal hyphae and roots of higher plants is called: (a) Mycorrhizae (b) Lichen (c) Parasite (d) None of these	A
1279.	The careful use of resources is called: (a) Conservation (b) Recycling (C) Environment care (d) Both a and	D
1280.	Oxygen and Nitrogen form bulk of: (a) Atmosphere (b) Biosphere (c) Aerosphere (d) All of them	A
1281.	____-% of all fresh water is found in solid form. (a) 2 % (b) 36% (c) 66% (d) 97%	A
1282.	About % of Nitrogen fixation is industrial fixation @ 5%-8% (b) 30%-35% (c) 60%-65% (d) None of these	B
1283.	Industrial Nitrogen fixation is also called: (a) Haber's Process (b) Eltonian Process (c) Clements Process (d) None of these	A
1284.	The reduction of Nitrogen gas to ammonia required: (a) 16 molecules of ATP (b) Complex Set of Enzyme (c) Both a and b (d) It either requires ATP or set of Enzyme.	C
1285.	Which of the following is Nitrogen fixing bacteria: (a) Clostridium (b) Azotobacter (c) Rhizobium (d) All of these	D
1286.	Leghaemoglobin is found in Rhizobium, which has similar function as of: (a) Immunoglobulin (b) Myoglobin (c) Hemoglobin (d) Both bandc	C
1287.	The specialized Nitrogen fixation structure are found in: (a) Aenabena (b) Frankia (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1288.	Which of the following convert ammonia into Nitrites? (a) Nitrobacter (b) Nitrosomonas (c) Both of These (d) None of these	B
1289.	Pseudomonas is an example of: (a) Denitrifying Bacteria (b) Nitrifying Bacteria (c) Ammonofying Bacteria (d) None of these	A
1290.	Production on land ecosystem is maximum at: (a) 30°C (b) 37C (c) 40°C (d) All of these	A
1291.	Who developed the concept of Ecological pyramid? (a) Eltonian Charles (b) Charles Haber (e) John Martin (d) None of these	A
1292.	Idea that Succession Ends in development of Climax community' was proposed by (a) John Martin (b) Frederic Clement (c) Eltonian Charles (d) All of them	B
1293.	Reproduction is bacteria is the example of (a) Population Pressure (b) Exponential Growth (c) Intrinsic Growth (d) Botha and b	D
1294.	The world population will be 12 billion in (a) 2025 (b) 2050 (c) After 100 Years (d) After 50 Years	D
1295.	Out of total fresh water % is consumed by agriculture. (a) 87% (b) 10% (c) 2% (d) 66%	C
1296.	6 million people die each year from disease which are caused by (a) Water (b) Virus (c) Bacteria (d) All of these	A
1297.	Estimated population of Pakistan in 1971 was (a) 100 Million (b) 65 Million (c) 200 Million (d) 50 Million	B
1298.	The average death rate in Pakistan in 1950. was: (a) 2.7% (b) 2.0% (c) 1.5% (d) 2.5%	A
1299.	In Pakistan ministry of planning and development was established: (a) 1980 (b) 1970 (C) 1985 (d) 2003	A
1300.	Which of the following is the largest source of CO2: (a) Electricity Generator (b) Transports (Vehicles) (c) Deforestation (d) Combustion	A
1301.	The Ozone layer is present at height of: (a) 10-20km (b) 20-30km (c) 30-50km (d) 50-80km	C
1302.	The measurement unit of Ozone layer is: (a) Dobson (b) Pascal (c) Ohm (d) None of these	A
1303.	One Dobson unit is equal to: (a) 0.01mm (b) 0.001m (c) Imm (d) 10mm	C
1304.	_____% of cataract of Eye is due to UV rays. (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 90%	A
1305.	The Chernobyl accident the only accident in history of commercial nuclear, which happen in: (a) Japan (b) Ukraine (c) France (d) USA	B
1306.	Total number of tidal cycles in one year: (a) 700 (b) 800 (c) 900 (d) 365	D
1307.	At the depth of 15km, the temperature is: (a) 1100°C (b) 500°C (b) 200°C (d) 2000%	A
1308.	Typical range of efficiency of thermal plant is: (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) 60% (d) 80%.	B
1309.	Biotechnology
1310.	Which type of ecosystem has the smallest raction of nutrients in the soil? (a) Savanna (b) Tundra (c) Desert (d) None of these	C
1311.	Which biome has the richest soil with nutrients? (a) Coniferous forest (b) Grassland (c) Desert (d) None of these	A
1312.	Fresh water ecosystem covers less than: (a) 1% (b) 3% (C) 5% (d) None	A
1313.	It is divided into littoral, limnetic, profundal Zones (a) Freshwater lake (b) Desert (c) Grassland (d) None of these	A
1314.	Which one is not correct for littoral zone? (a) Shallow water (b) Plankton (c) Detritivores (d) None of these	A
1315.	Which one is not related with eutrophication? (a) Depletion of (b) Foul Smell (c) Fish Dominant (d) None of these	C
1316.	Average rainfall in temperate deciduous forest is: (a) 500-1000 mm (b) 750-1500 mm (c) 1500-3000 mm (d) None of these	B
1317.	Northern charms forests are called (a) Alpine (b) Taiga ©) Tundra (d) None of these	A
1318.	Grassland in temperate climate is called: (a) Prairie (b) Savanna (c) Taiga (d) None of these	A
1319.	The dominant plant of grassland is:. (a) Shrubs (b) Graminnoid (c) Legumes (d) None of these	B
1320.	The type of gel most commonly used for short fragment DNA electrophoresis is: (a) Agarose (b) DNA Polymerase (c) Polyacrylamide (d) DNA Ligase	C
1321.	Cell suspension culture of Cinchona ledgeriana produces: (a) Quinine (b) Digitoxin (c) Polludrin (d) Antitoxin	A
1322.	Dideoxy ribonucleoside triphosphates are used to terminate DNA synthesis at different site Which method involves this procedure? (a) Maxam - Gilbert's Method (b) Sanger's Method (c) K.B Mullis Method (d) Gottlieb's Method	A
1323.	The gene of choice can also be synthesized in the laboratory from mRNA, using reverse transcriptase. This DNA molecule is called: (a) Complementary DNA (b) Replicative DNA (c) Synthetic DNA (d) SS DNA	A
1324.	The gene of interest is joined with the sticky ends produced after cutting the plasmid with the help of another special enzyme known as: (a) DNA Ligase (b) DNA Polymerase (c) Restriction Endonuclease (d) Reverse Transcriptase	A
1325.	The enzyme DNA polymerase can work only in: (a) 3'-5 Direction (b) 5-3 Direction (c) Both the Directions (d) 5 - 5 Direction	B
1326.	In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector is cleaved by: (a) Modified DNA ligase (b) A heated alkaline solution (c) The same enzyme that cleaves the donor DNA (d) The different enzyme other than that cleave the donor DNA.	C
1327.	Thermus aquaticus is the source of: (a) Taq Polymerase (b) Vent Polymerase (c) Botha and b (d) Primase Enzyme	A
1328.	The complete set of chromosomal and extra chromosomal genes of an organism is called: (a) Genome (b) Gene Pool (c) Gene Bank (d) Gene Library	A
1329.	A totipotent cell means (a) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant (b) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an organ (c) An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into complete embryo (d) Cell which lacks the capability to differentiate into an organ or system	B
1330.	Naturally restriction enzymes are found in (a) Bacteria (b) Virus (c)Fungi (d) All of these	A
1331.	Smal is an example of an enzyme that generates (a) Sticky Ends (b) Blunt Ends (c) Overhangs (d) None of these	B
1332.	Plasmid PBR322 carries antibiotic resistant gene: (a) Ampicillin (b) Tetracycline (c) Both of these (d) None of these	C
1333.	Which of the following components is necessary to carry out a PCR reaction? (a) Template DNA (b) Deoxy Ribonucleoside, Triphosphates (dNTPs) (c) Primers (d) Taq Polymerase (c) All of these	E
1334.	In PCR, the complete denaturation of DNA takes place at a temperature of: (a) 54°C (b) 20°C (c) 10°C (d) 94 C	D
1335.	A DNA sequencing method called chemical cleavage method was developed by: (3) Maxam and Gilbert. (b) Hershey and Chase (c) Watson and Crick (d) Beadle and Tatum	A
1336.	A collection of bacterial or bacteriophage clones, each containing at least one copy of every DNA sequence in a genome of an organism is known as: (a) DNA Probe (b) DNA Fingerprinting (c) Genomic Library (d) PCR	C
1337.	Southern blotting method is used for the detection of a specified: (a) Hormone (b) Enzyme (c) Protein (d) DNA Sequence	D
1338.	Which of the following is a commonly used DNA marker? (a) RFLPS (b) VNTRS (c) SNP (d) Microsatellite Polymorphism (e) All of these	E
1339.	Human genome project revealed that human DNA is made up of: (a) 25000 Base Pairs (b) 300 Base Pairs (c) 3 Million Base Pairs (d) 3 Billion Base Pairs	D
1340.	The initial plant part which is used to develop tissue culture is called: (a) Callus (b) Explant (c) Cell-Suspension Culture (d) Somatic Embryo	B
1341.	A culture technique which involves recombination of different cell types to form a more defined tissue or an organ is known as: (a) Tissue Culture (b) Organotypic Culture (c) Anther Culture (d) Protoplasts Culture	A
1342.	The first genes available for genetic engineering of crop plants for pest resistance were: (a) SRY Gene (b) Polygenes (c) Cry Genes (d) None of these	C
1343.	First transgenic bacterium was produced in: (a) 1906 (b) 1941 (c) 1928. (d) 1973	D
1344.	Removal of environmental pollutants by organisms is known as: (a) Bioremediation (b) Biosafety (c) Biosynthesis (d) Transformation	A
1345.	Somatic cell hybridization technique is used for the production of: (a) Transgenic Animals (b) Monoclonal Antibodies (c) DNA Probes (d) Liposomes	B
1346.	A technique for correcting defective genes responsible for disease development is known as: (a) Genetic Engineering (b) Tissue Culture (c) Recombinant DNA Technology (d) Gene Therapy	D
1347.	Radioactive or fluorescent single stranded nucleotide sequence that will hybridize (pair) with a certain piece of DNA to search a genetic library for a certain gene is known as: (a) Probe (b) Recombinant DNA (c) Promoter (d Vector	A
1348.	First DNA fingerprint was made in 1985 by: (a) Landsteiner (b) A. Jeffrey (c) Bateson (d) Sturtevant	B
1349.	Liposome, which carries the therapeutic DNA. is chemically: (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein (c) Hormone (d) Lipid	D
1350.	The human genome is times larger than any other genome sequenced so far. (a) 2 (b) 5 © 25 (d) 60	A
1351.	Which of these is a true statement? (a) Both plasmids and viruses can serve as Vectors (b) Plasmids can carry recombinant DNA but viruses cannot © Vectors carry only the foreign gene into the host cell (d) Only gene therapy uses vectors (e) Both a and d are correct	E
1352.	Which of these is a benefit to having insulin. produced by biotechnology? (a) It is just as effective (b) It can be mass produced (c) It is non-allergic (d) It is less expensive (e) All of these are correct	E
1353.	Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLPS): (a) Are achieved by using restriction enzymes (b) Identify individuals genetically (c) Are the basis for DNA finger prints (d) Can be subjected to gel electrophoresis (e) All of these are correct	E
1354.	Which of these would you not expect to be a biotechnology product? (a) Vaccine (b) Modified Enzymes (C) Protein Hormones (d) DNA Probes (e) Steroid Hormones	E
1355.	What is the benefit of using a retrovirus as a vector in gene therapy? (a) It is not able to enter the cell (b) It incorporates the foreign gene into the host chromosome (c) It prevents infection by other viruses (d) It eliminates a lot of unnecessary steps	B
1356.	Gel electrophoresis: (a) Cannot be used on nucleotide (b) Measures the size of plasmids (C) Tells whether viruses are infectious (d) Measures the change and size of proteins and DNA fragments (e) All of these are correct	D
1357.	Which of these is incorrectly matched? (a) Protoplast-plant cell engineering (b) RFLPS-DNA fingerprinting (C) DNA polymerase – PCR (d) DNA ligase-mapping human chromosomes.	D
1358.	Biology and Human welfare
1359.	What are our principle sources of energy? (a) Solar Energy (b) Nuclear Energy (c) Tidal Energy (d) All of these	A
1360.	Bacteria store: (a) Electrical energy (b) Chemical energy (c) Mechanical Energy (d) All of these	B
1361.	Which one is not a renewable resource? (a) Air (b) Water (c) Coal (d) Sunlight	C
1362.	Which is non-renewable resource? (a) Forest (b) Oil c) Coal (d) All of these	D
1363.	It is not a fossil fuel: (a) Coal (b) Gas (c) Wild Life (d) All of these	C
1364.	Air is several km thick blanket of atmosphere around the: (a) Earth (b) Sun (c) Moons (d) Mars	a
1365.	The upper weathered layer of earth crust is called: (a) Soil (b) Rock C) Sand (d) Water	A
1366.	Non Cultivated plant and non domesticated animals are called (a) Wild Life (b) Extinct species (c) Useless Species (d) Both b and c	a
1367.	Wind mills are used to generate electricity from (a) Wind Power (b) Solar Power (c) Nuclear Power (d) Both b and c	a
1368.	All of these are party of IDM except: (a) Seminars (b) Publishing (C) TV (d) Solar	D
1369.	Edward jenner developed vaccination in: (a) 1796 (b) 1790 (e) 1780 (d) 1792	A
1370.	Who discovered vaccination for cholera? (a) E. Jenner (b) L. Pasteur (c) J. Phillip (d) None	B
1371.	Who is known as father of Micro Biology? (a) A. V. Leeuwenhoek (b) L. Pasteur (c) Robert Hook (d) Both a and b	D
1372.	All of these are treated with live Attenuated vaccines except (a) Mumps (b) Rubella (c) Yellow Fever (d) Bubonic Plague	d
1373.	Example of subunit vaccine is: (a) Tetanus (b) HBV (c) HAV (d) Both a and c	d
1374.	BCG is generally administrated at the age of: (a) 5 years (b) At birth (c) At any age (d) Birth to 5 years	d
1375.	How many people of Pakistan's labour - force is engaged with live stock? (a) 35M (b) 20M (c) 45M (d) 100M	A
1376.	What is the percentage of fats in milk? (a) 9% (b) 70% (c) 27% (d) 20%	a
1377.	Most common bread in Pakistan is: (a) Dajjal (b) Nili Rawi (c) Kala Rojhan (d) Dhani	B
1378.	The process of organisms adaptation to change environment in the laboratory is: (a) Acclimatization (b) Acclimation c) Homeostasis (d) All of these	D
1379.	Which plant can survive freezing temp (a) Iries (b) Tomato (c) Both of these (d) None	C
1380.	Which one is used to insert a gene in plant? (a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (b) Gene Gun (c) Micro Injection (d) All of these	D
1381.	Which of these is used as biological alternative to pesticides: (a) Bacillus Thuringiensis (b) Agrobacterium (c) Both of these (d) None	C
1382.	At average, the vegetable available at stores travel about: (a) 2000 Miles (b) 100 Miles (C) 1800 Miles (d) 50 Miles	B
1383.	Which of these bacteria are called LAB: (a) S. Salivarius (b)S. Thermophilus (c) Lactobacillus Bulgaricus (d) All of these	D
1384.	Protein present in milk is: (a) Lactogen (b) Casien (c) Lactin (d) All of these	B
1385.	Which of these produced from fermentation of grapes? (a) Beer (b) Wine (c) Both of these (d) None	C
1386.	_______ % of Biogas is methane: (a) 75% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 80%.	A

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