2000 Biology MCQs

 

Choose the most appropriate answer:

CHAPTER 1

1. The medium of the food vacuole in the

unicellular animals is first:

a. Basic

b. Neutral

c. Acidic

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

2. Which of the following has no digestive

cavity?

a. Hydra

b. Planaria

c. Earth worm

d. Amoeba

Correct Ans. (d)

3. Which of the following has one way

passage of the food material in the

digestive tract?

a. Amoeba

b. Hydra

c. Planaria

d. Earthworm

Correct Ans. (d)

4. The oesophagus has internal glands which

secrete:

a. Protolytic secrete:

b. Hydrolytic enzyme

c. Bile

d. CaCO3

Correct Ans. (d)

5. The living cells of earth worm intestine

secrete:

a. Water

b. Base

c. Acids

d. Enzymes

Correct Ans. (d)

6. The enzyme secreted by saliving glands is:

a. Sucrase

b. Cellulase

c. Pepsin

d. Amylase

Correct Ans. (d)

7. Which of the following does not take part

in the pushing of food from the buccal

cavity into the pharynx:

a. Cheek muscles

b. Floor of buccal cavity

c. Nose muscles

d. Tongue

Correct Ans. (c)

8. Norma direction of the waves of

contraction of the muscle (Paristalisis) is from:

a. Stomach to oesophagus

b. Intestine to stomach

c. Oesophagus to pharynx

d. Oesophagus to stomach

Correct Ans. (d)

9. The inner lining of the stomach consists

of:

a. Salivary glands

b. Pituitary glands

c. Gastric glands

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

10. Which of the following is present in the

gastric juice:

a. Lipase

b. Amylase

c. HCI

d. H2So4

Correct Ans. (c)

11. Which of the following is not present in

the pancreatic juice?

a. Amylase

b. Cellulase

c. Lipase

d. Trypsin

Correct Ans. (b)

12. Which of the following acts upon

cellulose?

a. Lipase

b. Trypsin

c. Pepsin

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following is absorbed by the

lacteals?

a. Fats

b. Glucose

c. Amino acids

d. Water

Correct Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following releases Trypsin?

a. Gastric glands

b. Adrenal glands

c. Enterokinase

d. Bile

Correct Ans. (c)

15. Dipeptiase acts on:

a. Disaccharide

b. ADP

c. Diglyceride

d. Peptide bondys

Correct Ans. (d)

16. Which of the following is not part of a

villus?

a. Red blood cells

b. Blood capillaries

c. Lacteals

d. Epithelial cells

Correct Ans. (a)

17. Villi are found on the inner surface of:

a. Pharynx

b. Stomach

c. Oesophagus

d. Small intestine

Correct Ans. (d)

18. The lack of absorption of water & salt by

the large intestine result in:

a. Constipation

b. Diarrhea

c. Vomiting

d. Dysentery

Correct Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following is the last part of

the large intestine?

a. Colon

b. Caecum

c. Rectum

d. Ileum

Correct Ans. (c)

CHAPTER 2

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. In the 1st 13 segments of earthworm, the

dorsal vessel acts the function of:

a. Collection

b. Distribution

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

2. From the 14th segment backward, the

dorsal vessel acts as:

a. Collecting blood

b. Distributing blood

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

3. The dorsal vessel in earthworm sends the

collected blood to:

a. Ventral vessel

b. Sub-neural vessel

c. Hearts

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

4. Which of the following vessel runs below

the intestine in earthworm?

a. Dorsal vessel

b. Ventral vessel

c. Sub-neutral vessel

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

5. The direction of flow of blood in the subneutral

vessel is:

a. Lateral

b. Vertical

c. Forward

d. Backward

Correct Ans. (d)

6. The colour of blood plasma is

a. black

b. green

c. red

d. yellow

Correct Ans. (d)

7. Which of the following is absent in

grasshopper?

a. Heart

b. Blood

c. Capillaries

d. Transport system

Correct Ans. (c)

8. The blood enters the heart through the:

a. Aorta

b. Ventral vain

c. Ostia

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

9. Which of the following is true of man?

a. Open circulatory system

b. One circulatory fluids

c. Two circulatory fluids

d. Three circulatory fluids

Correct Ans. (c)

10. Heart is enclosed by a tough membrane

called:

a. Diaphragm

b. Pericardium

c. Pericardium

d. Epicardium

Correct Ans. (b)

11. Which of the following number of

chambers compose heart of man?

a. Two

b. Four

c. Seven

d. Eight

Correct Ans. (b)

12. Atria are located:

a. Above the ventricle

b. Blow the ventricle

c. One left of the ventricle

d. Sandwiched by the ventricle

Correct Ans. (a)

13. The right side of the heart contains:

a. Oxygenated blood

b. Deoxygenated

c. Mixed blood

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (b)

14. Which of the following received blood

from the body?

a. Ventricle

b. Atria

c. Both Ventricle and atria

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

15. From the right ventricle blood is pushed

towards the:

a. Aorta

b. Left atrium

c. Lungs

d. Left ventricie

Correct Ans. (c)

16. By the contraction of the left ventricle the

blood is pumped into the:

a. Right atrium

b. Left atrium

c. Lungs

d. Aorta

Correct Ans. (d)

17. The tricuspid valve guarding the opening

between the right atrium and right

ventricle is made up of:

a. Three flaps

b. Two flaps

c. Four flaps

d. Five flaps

Correct Ans. (a)

18. The aerated blood returns from the lungs

by means pulmonary veins into the:

a. Right atrium

b. Right ventricle

c. Left atrium

d. Left ventricle

Correct Ans. (c)

19. The whole heart cycle takes about:

a. 0.2 seconds

b. 0.4 seconds

c. 0.6 seconds

d. 0.8 seconds

Correct Ans. (d)

20. The heart muscles take rest for about:

a. 0.1 -0.3 seconds

b. 0.4 -0.5 seconds

c. 0.6 -0.8 seconds

d. 0.8 -1.00 seconds

Correct Ans. (a)

21. Arteries are formed of tissues arranged in:

a. Single layer

b. Two layers

c. Three layers

d. Four layers

Correct Ans. (c)

22. The thickness of blood capillaries is:

a. One cell

b. Two cells

c. Three cells

d. Four cells

Correct Ans. (a)

23. The average diameter of a blood capillary

is about:

a. 1um

b. 3um

c. 5um

d. 7um

Correct Ans. (d)

24. Aorta arises from:

a. left atrium

b. left ventricle

c. right atrium

d. Right ventricle

Correct Ans. (b)

25. Which of the following supply blood to the

heart itself?

a. Pulmonary

b. Lliac

c. Cutaneus

d. Coronary

Correct Ans. (d)

26. Superior vena cave carries blood to the:

a. Left atrium

b. Right ventricle

c. Right atrium

d. Right ventricle

Correct Ans. (b)

27. Which of the following carry blood from

the kidneys?

a. Hepatic vein

b. Hepatic portal vein

c. Renal vein

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

28. Which of the following has the lowest

blood pressure?

a. Arteries

b. Arterioles

c. Capillaries

d. Veins

Correct Ans. (d)

29. Blood pressure from arteries towards

veins:

a. increase

b. Decrease

c. Remains unchanged

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

30. Normal range of diastolic blood pressure

is:

a. 70-85

b. 85-95

c. 90-100

d. 100-110

Correct Ans. (a)

31. Which of the following has the high rate of

blood flow?

a. Veins

b. Capillaries

c. Aorta

d. Arteries

Correct Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following has the reduced

rate of blood flow?

a. Aorta

b. Arteries

c. Capillaries

d. Arterioles

Correct Ans. (c)

33. Which of the following brings about the

transits of nutrients hormones etc between

the blood and tissues:

a. Aorta

b. Capillaries

c. Veins

d. Arteries

Correct Ans. (b)

34. Which of the following has greater cross

sectional area?

a. Aorta

b. Capillaries

c. Veins

d. Arteries

Correct Ans. (d)

35. Which of the following is not the

characteristics of the blood?

a. Circulates in the vessels

b. Complex substance

c. Composed of plasma and blood

cells

d. Gelatinous substance

Correct Ans. (d)

36. The percent by volume formed by the

plasma of the blood about:

a. 45

b. 55

c. 65

d. 75

Correct Ans. (b)

37. The water percentage (by wt) of the

plasma is almost:

a. 50

b. 60

c. 80

d. 90

Correct Ans. (d)

38. How many nucleoli are present in the red

blood cells?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. None

Correct Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following is the shape of

human RBC?

a. Biconcave

b. Biconvex

c. Spherical

d. Rod-shaped

Correct Ans. (a)

40. In embryonic stages RBC are formed in:

a. heart

b. liver and spleen

c. head

d. kidney

Correct Ans. (b)

41. RBC present in one cubic millimeter of

blood are almost:

a. Two million

b. Four million

c. Five million

d. Seven million

Correct Ans. (c)

42. WBC present in a cubic millimeter of

blood are almost:

a. 20,000

b. 30,000

c. 3,000

d. 7,000 – 8,000

Correct Ans. (d)

43. Which of the following is the main

function of the WBC?

a. helps in blood clotting

b. carry oxygen

c. protection against microorganims

d. Transport iron

Correct Ans. (c)

44. Which of the following are the smallest in

size?

a. Erythrocytes

b. Lymphocytes

c. Neutrophills

d. Platelets

Correct Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following is absent in the

lymph?

a. RBC

b. WBC

c. Protein

d. All of them

Correct Ans. (a)

46. Which of the following is the function of

lymph node?

a. Carrying of 02

b. Producing RBC

c. Producing lymphocytes antibodies

d. Producing platelets

Correct Ans. (c)

CHAPTER 3

Choose the most appropriate answer

1. Which of the following is not present in

Hydra?

a. Gaseous exchange takes place

through the whole surface

b. Specialized organs for respiration

present

c. Oxygen diffuses from the water in

the digestive cavity

d. CO2 diffuses through the general

surface

Correct Ans. (b)

2. Which of the following has respiratory

surface of large area?

a. Hydra

b. Planaria

c. Grasshopper

d. Man

Correct Ans. (d)

3. Which of the following has a respiratory

pigment?

a. Earthworm

b. Amoeba

c. Planaria

d. Hydra

Correct Ans. (a)

4. Each nasal cavity is subdivided into air

passage ways the number of which is:

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

Correct Ans. (a)

5. The cavity of larynx is called:

a. Pharynx

b. Trachea

c. Glottis

d. Nostril

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Vocal cords are located in the:

a. Pharynx

b. Glottis

c. Trachea

d. Nosal cavity

Correct Ans. (b)

7. Which of the following has no c-shaped

cartilage ring?

a. Bronchioles

b. Trachea

c. Bronchi

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

8. Which of the following acts as functional

units of lungs?

a. Bronchioles

b. Air sac

c. Bronchus

d. Tracheae

Correct Ans. (b)

9. The membrane covering the lungs is

called:

a. Diaphragm

b. Pericardium

c. Epicardium

d. Pleura

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Which of the following acts as pumps for

moving air in and out of lungs?

a. Lungs

b. Heart

c. Kidneys

d. Chest wall and diaphragms

Correct Ans. (d)

11. With the increase in volume of the chest

cavity its internal pressure:

a. Decrease

b. Increase

c. Remain unchanged

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

12. Which of the following is not correct for

inspiration?

a. Elevation of chest wall

b. Lowering of diaphragm

c. Lowering of chest wall

d. Moving of air inside

Correct Ans. (c)

13. Which of the following is the maximum

amount of oxygen absorbed by 100 ml of

human blood?

a. 10 ml

b. 15 ml

c. 20 ml

d. 30 ml

Correct Ans. (c)

14. Most of the CO2 is carried from the tissues

as:

a. Co2 gas

b. Carbooric acid

c. Carbonate ions

d. Bicarbonate ions

Correct Ans. (d)

15. The amount of CO2 present in 100 ml of

blood in arteries is about:

a. 45 ml

b. 50 ml

c. 54 ml

d. 60 ml

Correct Ans. (b)

16. The amount of CO2 taken by 100 ml of

blood when its passes through the lungs is:

a. 4 ml

b. 8 ml

c. 10 ml

d. 14 ml

Correct Ans. (a)

17. The amount of Carbon dioxide given off

by 100 ml of blood when it passes through

the lungs is:

a. 1 ml

b. 2 ml

c. 3 ml

d. 4 ml

Correct Ans. (d)

CHAPTER 4

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is the major and

immediate nitrogenous product of proteins

and amino acids?

a. Urea

b. Ammonia

c. HNO3

d. HNO2

Correct Ans. (b)

2. Which of the following are the most toxic

waste substance?

a. H2O

b. CO2

c. Ammonia

d. Uric acid

Correct Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following needs more water

for removal?

a. Ammonia

b. CO2

c. Uric acid

d. O2

Correct Ans. (a)

4. The chief nitrogenous waste products in

grasshopper is:

a. Ammonia

b. Nitric acid

c. Uric acid

d. HCI

Correct Ans. (c)

5. Which of the following emerges from the

hilus in human kidney?

a. Urinary bladder

b. Ureter

c. Urethra

d. Nephridiopore

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Each nephron is

a. Blind at one end

b. Blind at both ends

c. Open at both ends

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

7. A cluster of capillaries present in the

Bowman, capsule is called:

a. Cortex

b. Medulla

c. Glomerulus

d. Nephron

Correct Ans. (c)

8. How many processes are involved in the

functioning of kidney to form urine?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

Correct Ans. (d)

9. Which of the following is the major

excretory nitrogenous materials in man?

a. Ammonia

b. Amino acid

c. Urea

d. CO2

Correct Ans. (c)

10. Which of the following converts ammonia

into urea?

a. Kidney

b. Stomach

c. Lungs

d. Liver

Correct Ans. (d)

11. The percentage of dissolves solids in urine

is almost:

a. 20

b. 10

c. 5

d. 2

Correct Ans. (c)

12. Which of the following controls the

reabsorption of glucose in the urinary tubule?

a. Testeoron

b. Thyroxin

c. Insulin

d. Parathormone

Correct Ans. (c)

13. The insufficiency of insulin results in

incomplete metabolism of:

a. Carbohydrate

b. Fats

c. Protein

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following Disease results

when carbohydrates metabolism is

incomplete in the body?

a. Goiter

b. Colour blindness

c. Diabetes mellitus

d. Typhoid

Correct Ans. (c)

15. Which of the following is the waste

product formed during metabolic process?

a. Sucrose

b. Heat

c. Glucose

d. Fatty acids

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Which of the following plays a part in

temperature regulation?

a. Skin

b. Kidney

c. Lungs

d. Liver

Correct Ans. (a)

17. Which of the following phenomenon

occurs if the body begins to lose more heat

than it is generating?

a. More blood supply to skin

b. More sweating

c. Reduction in metabolic activity

d. Reduction of blood supply to the

skin

Correct Ans. (d)

CHAPTER 5

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is not the character

of multicellular animals?

a. Tendency towards division of

labour

b. Better organization

c. Less inter dependency of organs

d. Integration and regulation of

activity

Correct Ans. (c)

2. Which of the following does not come

under the coordination in multicellular

animals?

a. Deregulation

b. Organization

c. Integration

d. Control

Correct Ans. (a)

3. Which of the following consists of

secretary tissues?

a. Nervous system

b. Endocrine system

c. Circulatory system

d. Excretory system

Correct Ans. (b)

4. How many steps are involved in a

response?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

Correct Ans. (d)

5. Which of the following are structures that

respond when they are stimulated by nerve

impulses?

a. Neurons

b. Receptors

c. Effectors

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following lacks central

nervous system?

a. Planaria

b. Hydra

c. Man

d. Frog

Correct Ans. (b)

7. Each sense organ is specialized to receive

a. Specific type of stimulus

b. Different types of stimuli

c. All types of stimuli

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

8. Which of the following light does not

stimulate our eyes?

a. Green

b. Blue

c. Violet

d. Ultraviolet

Correct Ans. (d)

9. Which of the following carry impulses

from the central nervous system?

a. Sensory neurons

b. Effectors

c. Association neurons

d. Motor neurons

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Which of the following lie exclusively in

the spiral cord and brain?

a. Sensory neurons

b. Motor neurons

c. Association neurons

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

11. The contact point between the axon

endings of one neuron and the dendrites of

another neuron is called:

a. transmitter

b. Acceptors

c. Synapse

d. Impulse

Correct Ans. (c)

12. The chemical liberated by the axon ending

due to the arrival of an impulse are

called:

a. acceptors

b. transmitters

c. absorpters

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

13. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Now neurons are formed by the

division of old ones

b. Neurons lack the ability of division

c. Neuron can regenerate axons if cell

body is not damaged

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following is the normal rate

in meter per second of an impulse?

a. 10

b. 50

c. 100

d. 200

Correct Ans. (c)

15. How many types of actions are usually

performed by human body?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Four

d. Five

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Which of the following conditioned

reflexes?

a. Inborn

b. Inherited

c. Unlearnt

d. Acquired

Correct Ans. (d)

17. Which of the following is not the part of

brain?

a. Lateral brain

b. Fore brain

c. Midbrain

d. Hindbrain

Correct Ans. (a)

18. Which of the following is not part of the

forebrain?

a. Cerebrum

b. Thalamus

c. Epithalamus

d. Hypothalamus

Correct Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is the largest part

of human brain?

a. Midbrain

b. Hindbrain

c. Thalamus

d. Cerebrum

Correct Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following is the control

centre of sight and hearing?

a. Cerebrum

b. Thalamus

c. Hypothalamus

d. Epithalamus

Correct Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following is not controlled

by cerebrum?

a. Smell

b. Hearing

c. Water balance

d. Memory

Correct Ans. (c)

22. Which of the following is not controlled

by the hypothalamus?

a. Appetite

b. Sleep

c. Body temperature

d. Smell

Correct Ans. (d)

23. Which of the following receives most of

the impulses arriving from different

sensory areas of the body?

a. Midbrain

b. Hindbrain

c. Thalamus

d. Hypothalamus

Correct Ans. (c)

24. Which of the following forms the second

largest part of the brain?

a. Cerebellum

b. Cerebrum

c. Pone

d. Medulla oblongata

Correct Ans. (a)

25. Which of the following controls and

coordinates the balance among organs and

the muscles?

a. Thalamus

b. Hypothalamus

c. Cerebellum

d. Pons

Correct Ans. (c)

26. Which of the following is controlled by

medulla oblongata?

a. Muscular activities

b. Heart beat

c. Judgment

d. Smell

Correct Ans. (b)

27. How many pairs of cerebral nerves arise

from the brain?

a. 12

b. 15

c. 20

d. 31

Correct Ans. (a)

28. How many spiral nerves come out of the

spiral cord?

a. 25

b. 31

c. 35

d. 40

Correct Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following types of nerves

cerebral arise from the brain?

a. Sensory

b. Motor

c. Mixed

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

30. Which of the following types of spiral

nerves arise from the spiral cord?

a. Sensory

b. Mixed

c. Motor

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

31. Which of the following is not controlled

by the nervous system?

a. Body equilibrium

b. Rate of heart beat

c. Rate of growth

d. Rate of breathing

Correct Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following controlled by

hormones?

a. Rate of growth

b. Rate of activity

c. Sexual maturity

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

33. Which of the following generally not the

function hormone?

a. Initiate a process

b. Simulate

c. Inhibit

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

34. Which of the following is true of

hormones?

a. All are proteins

b. All are inorganic compounds

c. All are Organics substances

d. Transferred to the site of action by

their own ducts

Correct Ans. (c)

35. Thyroid gland lies:

a. Near liver

b. In the middle portion of neck

c. Top of kidney

d. Below the heart

Correct Ans. (b)

36. What would happen to the sugar

metabolism in the absence of insulin in the

body?

a. Stops

b. Not affected

c. Rate increases

d. Slows down

Correct Ans. (a)

37. Which of the following is not regulated by

iodothyroxines?

a. balance of salts

b. Maturation

c. Sexual development

d. Oxygen consumption

Correct Ans. (a)

38. Which of the following will occur as a

result of insufficient secretion of the

thyroid gland at infancy?

a. Dwarf growth

b. Incomplete mental development

c. Retarded sexual development

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

39. Which of the following occurs as a result

of myxedema in adults?

a. Incomplete carbohydrate

metabolism

b. Dwarf growth

c. Disturbance in salt metabolism

d. Thickness of skin and of hair

brittleness Correct Ans.

(d)

40. Which of the following results due to the

deficiency of iodine?

a. Exophthalmic goiter

b. Goiter

c. Mental lethargy

d. Heart attack

Correct Ans. (b)

41. What happens to the blood glucose level as

a result of insufficient insulin production?

a. Increase

b. Decrease

c. Remains normal

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

42. Which of the following is secreted by

adrenal glands?

a. Cortisone

b. Adrenaline

c. Cortisone

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

43. Which of the following secreted by

adrenal glands?

a. Cortisone

b. Adrenaline

c. Cortisone

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

44. Which of the following functions

effectively during emotions and emergencies?

a. Adrenaline

b. Noradrenalin

c. Cortisone

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a)

45. Which of the following is male sex

hormones?

a. Testosterone

b. Estrogen

c. Cortisone

d. Glycogon

Correct Ans. (a)

46. Which of the following is produced by the

ovaries?

a. Iodothyorine

b. Testosterone

c. Estrogen

d. Parathormone

Correct Ans. (c)

47. Which of the following is located at the

base of the brain?

a. Ovaries

b. Liver

c. Adrenal glands

d. Pituitary gland

Correct Ans. (b)

48. Which of the following is secreted by the

posterior pituitary lobe of pituitary gland?

a. oxytocin

b. lactogenic hormone

c. thyroid stimulating hormone

d. luteinizing hormone

Correct Ans. (a)

49. Which of the following is not regulated by

the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

a. Growth hormone

b. Lactogenic hormone

c. Antidiuretic hormone

d. Latinizing hormone

Correct Ans. (c)

50. Which of the following results due to

under secretion of antiduiretic hormone?

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Diabetes insipidus

c. Goiter

d. Dwarf growth

Correct Ans. (b)

51. Which of the following stimulates the

development of egg?

a. Luteinizing hormone

b. Testosterone

c. Oxytocin

d. Lactogenic hormone

Correct Ans. (a)

52. Which of the following will fail to appear

as result of castration?

a. Development of egg

b. Mammary gland

c. Moustache

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

53. By the action of glucogon, the blood

glucose level

a. decreases

b. increase

c. remains the same

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 6

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is an advanced

character?

a. Asymmetrical body

b. Bilateral symmetry

c. Radial symmetry

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

2. Which of the following animals inhibit

land environment?

a. Asymmetrical

b. Bilateral symmetry

c. Radial symmetry

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

3. How many central smaller fibrils are

present in a cilium?

a. None

b. 2

c. 5

d. 10

Correct Ans. (b)

4. Which of the following moves by means

of tube feet?

a. Planaria

b. Starfish

c. Hydra

d. Earthworm

Correct Ans. (b)

5. Which of the following moves by means

of foot?

a. Earthworm

b. Amoeba

c. Snails

d. Paramecium

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Which of the following is correct for

arthropods?

a. Skeleton internal to the muscle

b. Skeleton absent

c. Skeleton external to the muscle

d. Skeletons both internal and external

Correct Ans. (c)

7. The bones are held together by a tissue

called:

a. Tendons

b. Ligament

c. Joints

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (b)

8. Which of the following are voluntary

muscles?

a. Skeletal

b. Cardiac

c. Smooth

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following are involuntary

muscles?

a. Cardiac

b. Smooth

c. Skeletal

d. Both A & B

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Which of the following muscles contract

relatively quickly?

a. Cardiac

b. Smooth

c. Skeletal

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

11. Which of the following is the range of

diameter of a skeletal muscle fibre?

a. 10-100 um

b. 100-200 um

c. 300-400 um

d. 500-600 um

Correct Ans. (a)

12. Which of the following are contractile

subunits present in each muscle fibre?

a. Myofilaments

b. Myofibrils

c. Myosin

d. Actin

Correct Ans. (b)

13. The cell membrane enclosing the fibre is

called:

a. Plasmolema

b. Endolema

c. Sarcolemma

d. Atolemma

Correct Ans. (c)

14. Myofilaments within the sarcoplasmic

envelope run:

a. Transversally

b. Longitudinally

c. Obliquely

d. Radially

Correct Ans. (b)

15. The Myofilaments are made up of:

a. Glycogen

b. Steroids

c. Cellulose

d. Proteins

Correct Ans. (d)

16. Which of the following make up thick

filament of the myofibril?

a. actin

b. Pectin

c. Myosin

d. Lysine

Correct Ans. (c)

17. The impulse received from the supply to

the muscle release:

a. K++

b. Na+

c. Mg+

d. Ca++

Correct Ans. (d)

18. When a muscle fibre receives an impulse

from the nerve it

a. Contracts

b. Expands

c. Remains unaffected

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

19. The tricep brachii muscle possesses:

a. One head

b. Two heads

c. Three heads

d. Many heads

Correct Ans. (c)

20. How many bones take part in the

formation of cranium in man?

a. 8

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

Correct Ans. (a)

21. How many bones support the fact in man?

a. 5

b. 7

c. 9

d. 10

Correct Ans. (c)

22. Which of the following bone is not the part

of cranium in man?

a. occipital

b. temporal

c. ethmoid

d. vomer

Correct Ans. (d)

23. Which of the following takes part in the

formation of cranium?

a. Frontal bone

b. Occipital bone

c. Sphenoid

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

24. The atlas vertebrae lie in the

a. Back

b. Thoracic region

c. Neck

d. Pelvic region

Correct Ans. (C)

25. Which of the following number of

vertebrae are present in the thoracic region?

a. 12

b. 14

c. 16

d. 18

Correct Ans. (a)

26. Which of the following number of

vertebrae are lying in the lower back region?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 9

Correct Ans. (b)

27. Which of the following vertebrae are

present in the lower back?

a. Atlas

b. Cervical

c. Lumber

d. Thoracic

Correct Ans. (c)

28. Which of the following vertebrae are lying

in the neck region?

a. lumber

b. cervical

c. thoracic

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following number of

vertebrae are present in the pelvic region?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 7

d. 9

Correct Ans. (d)

30. Which of the following number of rib pairs

compose the chest cage?

a. 12

b. 15

c. 18

d. 20

Correct Ans. (a)

31. Which of the following attaches the arms

to the trunk?

a. Pelvic girdle

b. Pectoral girdle

c. Hip girdle

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

32. Which of the following connects the

scapula to the sternum?

a. Axis

b. Atlas

c. Coccyx

d. Clavicle

Correct Ans. (d)

33. The joint formed by the humerus with the

scapula is:

a. Hinge joint

b. Ball and socket joint

c. Multistage joint

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

34. Which of the following joint is formed by

the radius and ulna at their distal end with

the wrist bones?

a. Hinbge

b. Ball and socket

c. Multistage

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

35. With how many wrist bones ulina and

radius form a joint?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10

d. 12

Correct Ans. (b)

36. Which of the following from knee joint

with the femur?

a. Illium

b. radius and ulna

c. Tibia and Fibula

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

37. The ankle bones are called:

a. Tarsal

b. Carpels

c. Metacarpels

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

38. The number of ankle bone is:

a. 2

b. 8

c. 16

d. 20

Correct Ans. (b)

39. Which of the following is the

characteristic of endoskeleton?

a. Primitive

b. Inert

c. Non-living

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (d)

40. Which of the following is the character of

exoskeletion?

a. Rigid

b. Heavy

c. Non-living

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (d)

41. Which of the following is not the

characteristics of endoskeleton?

a. Secreted by endodermal cells

b. Poses no hindrance to the growth

c. Present in advanced animals

d. Can grow (living)

Correct Ans. (a)

42. The bones forming endoskeleton in

vertebrates are:

a. living

b. non-living

c. secreted by endodermal cells

d. do not grow

Correct Ans. (a)

43. Which of the following have plantigrade

locomotion?

a. Bears

b. Fishes

c. Goat

d. Snake

Correct Ans. (a)

44. Which of the following have unguligrade

type of locomotion?

a. Goat

b. Man

c. Rabbits

d. Bears

Correct Ans. (d)

45. Which of the following locomotion is

present in horse?

a. Plantigrade

b. Digitigrades

c. Unguligrade

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

46. Which of the following have bipedal

locomotion?

a. Horse

b. Bear

c. Rodents

d. Man

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 7

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is not involved in

asexual reproduction?

a. Binary fission

b. Multiple fissions

c. Budding

d. Gametes formation

Correct Ans. (d)

2. The gametes produced by female are

called:

a. Ova

b. Sperms

c. Spores

d. Ovaries

Correct Ans. (a)

3. Sperms are produced in male inside:

a. Ovaries

b. Kidney

c. Embryo

d. Testes

Correct Ans. (d)

4. An individual possessing both male and

female reproductive organs is called:

a. imperfect

b. hermaphrodite

c. Unisexual

d. Neuter

Correct Ans. (b)

5. Which of the following conditions need

huge supply of yolk to the egg?

a. viviparity

b. Oviparity

c. Both A & B

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following animals are

viviparous?

a. Birds

b. Deer

c. Frog

d. Snakes

Correct Ans. (b)

7. Which of the following lies to the extreme

outside completely covering the embryo?

a. Amnion

b. Allantois

c. Chorion

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

8. Which of the following acts as a reservoir

for undigested food and nitrogenous waste

products?

a. Allantoic cavity

b. Amnoitic cavity

c. Chorion cavity

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following have no elaborate

contact between the maternal and the

foetal tissues?

a. sharks

b. cats

c. dogs

d. deers

Correct Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following mammals lay

eggs?

a. Eutherians

b. Prototherians

c. Metatherians

d. None of these Correct Ans.

(b)

11. Which of the following expel imperfectly

develop embryo out of the body?

a. Prototherians

b. Eutherians

c. Metatherians

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (c)

12. Which of the following have developed

placentas for the nourishment of embryos?

a. eutherians

b. Prototherians

c. Metatherians

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

13. Which of the following are metatherians?

a. birds

b. fishes

c. kangaroos

d. frogs

Correct Ans. (c)

14. Consider the following:

Sharks

Birds

Kangaroos

Monkeys

Man

Cat

Which of the following is eutharian?

a. Man, shark, cat

b. Cat, monkey, man

c. Cat, monkey, birds

d. Kangaroos, cat, shark

Correct Ans. (b)

15. The maturation of spermatozoa in man

takes place in:

a. Duct system

b. Seminiferous tubules

c. Vas deferens

d. Dpididymus

Correct Ans. (b)

16. The number of ova discouraged at one

time from the ovary in human is:

a. none

b. one

c. two

d. many

Correct Ans. (b)

17. The fertilized ovum or zygote enters into:

a. Ovary

b. Kidney

c. Uterus

d. Oviduct

Correct Ans. (c)

18. Which of the following is the approximate

gestation period in humans?

a. seven months

b. nine months

c. ten months

d. twelve months

Correct Ans. (b)

19. Which of the following is involved in the

control of menstrual cycle?

a. Pituitary gland

b. Pancrease

c. Thyroid gland

d. Placenta

Correct Ans. (a)

20. How many types of cells composed a

human ovary?

a. 10

b. 7

c. 4

d. 2

Correct Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following is the function of

follicle cells?

a. reproduction

b. growth

c. support and nutrition

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

22. Which of the following occurs if

fertilization fails to takes place in human

female?

a. Corpus luteum starts regenerating

b. Progesterone secretion increases

c. Uterus remains intact

d. Onset of menstruation

Correct Ans. (d)

23. Which of the following stimulates the

development and secretion of family in the

mammary glands?

a. Progesterone

b. Luteotropic hormone

c. Estrogen

d. Luteinizing hormone

Correct Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following stimulates the

release of the egg?

a. Luteinizing hormone

b. Follicle stimulating hormone

c. Luteotropic hormone

d. Progesterone

Correct Ans. (a)

25. In which of the following abortion of

embryo occurs if ovary is removed at any

stage to pregnancy?

a. Rabbits

b. Horses

c. Monkeys

d. Humans

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 8

Choose the most appropriate answer

1. In which of the following the zygote

divides very rapidly to become

Multicellular?

a. Gastrulation

b. Cleavage

c. Organogenesis

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (b)

2. In which of the following the newly

formed cells move from one place to other?

a. Cleavage

b. Organogenesis

c. Gastrulation

d. Growth

Correct Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following is not true of frog?

a. Lays eggs

b. Embryo is formed outside the body

c. Eggs are laid on land

d. Fertilization is external

Correct Ans. (c)

4. Four micromeres and four macromeres are

formed in the developing zygote of frog

after?

a. First cleavage

b. Second cleavage

c. Third cleavage

d. Fourth cleavage

Correct Ans. (c)

5. The two cells formed after first cleavage of

the zygote of frog are called:

a. micromeres

b. macromeres

c. centromeres

d. blastomeres

Correct Ans. (d)

6. The embryo at the transitory period

between cleavage and Gastrulation is called:

a. blastocoele

b. blastuala

c. blastomere

d. blastopore

Correct Ans. (b)

7. The initiation of Gastrulation is the

appearance at one side of a:

a. bud

b. cleft

c. outgrowth

d. opening

Correct Ans. (b)

8. Which of the following region of ectoderm

gives rise to the neural plate?

a. mid dorsal

b. mid ventral

c. anterior ventral

d. anterior dorsal

Correct Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following is formed from the

somatic mesoderm lying on the two lateral

sides of the notochord?

a. vertebral column

b. muscles of the back

c. dermis of the skin

d. all of these

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Which of the following is formed by the

ectoderm?

a. urinary system

b. respiratory system

c. nervous system

d. vertebral column

Correct Ans. (b)

11. The process by which the tail of tadepole

is lost is called:

a. Progressive

b. Retrogressive

c. Organizational

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

12. Which of the following is organizational

change in frogs development?

a. disappearance of gills

b. development of limbs

c. shortening of intestine

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

13. Which of the following tissues are

regarded as organizers?

a. notochordal

b. somatic

c. reproductive

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (a)

14. Which of the following is a condition

known for small skull?

a. cleft plate

b. colour blindness

c. microcephaly

d. microphylous

Correct Ans. (c)

15. Which of the following is a condition

known for hare-lip?

a. Microcephaly

b. Cleft palate

c. Microspory

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Which of the following has a complete

genetic information in its nucleus for

formation of a complete individual?

a. Thyroid gland

b. Pituitary gland

c. Liver

d. Spleen

Correct Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following has a complete

genetic information in its nucleus for

formation of a complete individual?

a. egg

b. sperm

c. zygote

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

18. Muscle cells acquire special kinds of

proteins called:

a. Actin

b. Insulin

c. Pectin

d. Lignin

Correct Ans. (a)

19. The nucleus of Acetabularia lies:

a. at the tip

b. in the stalk

c. in the cap

d. in the base

Correct Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following happens when the

two blastomeres of a sea urchin are

separated?

a. Not develops into larva

b. Each one develops into a larva

c. Only one develops into a larva

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 9

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. In nature garden pea plant is

a. Self fertilized

b. Cross fertilized

c. Both self and cross

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

2. Which of the following trait appears in the

F1 generation when true breeding plants

producing round seeds are crossed with

true breeding wrinkled seeds?

a. All wrinkled

b. Half round and half wrinkled

c. All round

d. Round and wrinkled appeared in

the ratio of 3.1 respectively

Correct Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following trait is obtained in

F1 generation when true breeding plants

producing purple flowers is crossed with

true breeding plants producing white

flowers?

a. All purple flowers

b. All white flowers

c. Half purple and half white

d. Purple and white in the ratio of 3:1

respectively

Correct Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following F2 talls will behave

like F1 hybrid talls?

a. all

b. 1/3

c. 2/3

d. None

Correct Ans. (b)

5. Which of the following F2 talls will behave

like F1 hybrid talls?

a. none

b. all

c. 2/3

d. 1/3

Correct Ans. (c)

6. The alternative form of a given gene is

called:

a. trait

b. phenotype

c. allele

d. recessive

Correct Ans. (c)

7. During gamete formation the two different

alleles of a trait

a. separate

b. stay together

c. disappear

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (a)

8. The gametes produced by a homozygous

dwarf plant would of

a. one type

b. two type

c. three type

d. four type

Correct Ans. (a)

9. A child of homozygous blood group A is

born of a father with homozygous blood

group A. Which of the following will be

the genotype of the child’s mother?

a. |A |B

b. |B |B

c. |B i

d. ii

Correct Ans. (a)

10. In the above cross what will be the

percentage of plants in F2 generation

producing yellow round seeds?

a. 20%

b. 36%

c. 46%

d. 56%

Correct Ans. (d)

11. In the cross of question No. 45, what will

be the percentage of plants in F2

generation producing yellow wrinkled

seeds?

a. 18.75%

b. 30.75%

c. 40%

d. 50%

Correct Ans. (a)

12. How many types of gametes are possible

to be produced by a hybrid (heterozygous)

pea plant producing yellow round seeds?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

Correct Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following possible number of

gene pairs control the skin colour in man?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Correct Ans. (d)

14. Which of the following controls the colour

of eyes in human beings?

a. brown pigment

b. Red pigment

c. Blue-pigment

d. Green pigment

Correct Ans. (a)

15. Baldness in human beings is hereditary

which is:

a. Recessive in males

b. Recessive in females

c. dominant in males

d. both b and c

Correct Ans. (d)

16. The inability of the body to utilize the

sugars properly is due to:

a. a dominant gene

b. a recessive gene

c. two dominant genes

d. multiple genes

Correct Ans. (b)

17. The offspring of mating between two pure

stains are called:

a. hybrid

b. mutants

c. the P generation

d. the F2 generation

Correct Ans. (a)

18. How many possible phenotypes are there

for the ABO blood group?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 16

Correct Ans. (a)

19. A child with blood group genotype |A |B is

born of a woman with genotype |B |B.

The father of the child could not be of the

genotype.

a. |A |A

b. |B |B

c. |B |B

d. |A i

Correct Ans. (b)

20. In the above question, if the couple has

normal child, without phenylketonuria,

what is the probability this child is carrier

of the disease?

a. 0.33

b. 0.50

c. 0067

d. 1.00

Correct Ans. (c)

21. When red-flowered snapdragons were

crossed with white-flowered plants, their

offspring have pink flowers. This type of

genotypic expression is called:

a. dominant-recessive

b. co-dominance

c. incomplete dominance

d. all of these

Correct Ans. (c)

22. The genotypic expression seen in a person

of blood group AB is called:

a. dominant-recessive

b. codominance

c. incomplete dominance

d. corecession

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 10

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. The Mendel factors which control the

inheritance of characters are called:

a. Chromosomes

b. RNA

c. Genes

d. Centrosomes

Correct Ans. (c)

2. Gametes have:

a. the same number of chromosomes

as the body cells

b. twice the number of chromosomes

as the body cells

c. half the number of chromosome, as

the body cells

d. one fourth the number of

chromosomes as the body cells

Correct Ans. (c)

3. Which of the following number of

chromosomes are present in the somatic

cells of Drosophila?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 16

d. 20

Correct Ans. (b)

4. Which of the following determines sex of

the offspring in human beings?

a. Sperm

b. Egg

c. Somatic cell

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (a)

5. Which of the following determines sex of

the following in butterflies?

a. sperm

b. egg

c. somatic cell

d. all of these

Correct Ans. (b)

6. In which of the following, egg determines

sex of the offspring?

a. Drosophila

b. Man

c. Grass hopper

d. Birds

Correct Ans. (d)

7. In the cross of male and female of F1

generation in Drosophila, what will be the

ratio of red eyed males among all the

offspring of F2 generation?

a. 25%

b. 33%

c. 50%

d. 75%

Correct Ans. (a)

8. Which of the following is sex-linked trait

in man?

a. Eye colour

b. Skin colour

c. Colour blindness

d. Blood group

Correct Ans. (c)

9. Colour blindness is a condition in which

the individuals have difficulty in

distinguishing:

a. Black from white

b. White from green

c. Yellow from red

d. Red from green

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Gene for the trait of colour blandness in

man is located on

a. autosomes

b. x chromosome

c. y chromosome

d. on both x and y chromosomes

Correct Ans. (b)

11. A woman receives her x chromosome

from

a. her mother only

b. her father only

c. both her mother and her father

d. extra nuclear DNA in her mother’s

egg

Correct Ans. (c)

12. A man receives his x chromosome from

a. his mother only

b. his father only

c. part from his father and part from

his mother

d. either his mother or his father

Correct Ans. (a)

13. Genes located on the same chromosome

a. are assorted independently

b. obey Mendel’s law of independent

assessment

c. are not lined

d. are linked

Correct Ans. (d)

14. Crossing over occurs when genetic

information is exchange between tow

a. chromatids of a chromosome

b. long arms of a chromosome

c. chromatids of two homologous

d. non homologues chrorhosomes?

Correct Ans. (c)

15. The failure of homologous chromosomes

to detach and segregate during meiosis is

called:

a. crossing over

b. no disjunction

c. sysnapsis

d. linkage

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Which of the following defects is not

caused by non disjunction?

a. Down syndrome

b. Turner syndrome

c. Klinefelter’s syndrome

d. Acquired immuno deficiency

syndrome

Correct Ans. (d)

17. Individual having Down’s syndrome,

contains chromo-some number

a. 47

b. 45

c. 46

d. 44

Correct Ans. (a)

18. Females with Turner’s syndrome have

chromosomes

a. xx

b. x

c. xxx

d. xxy

Correct Ans. (b)

19. In Klinefelters syndrome females posses

a. xx

b. xy

c. xxy

d. xxx

Correct Ans. (d)

20. Which of the following is the symptom of

Down’s syndrome?

a. physical and mental abnormality

b. sexual immaturity

c. criminal tnndency

d. colour blindress

Correct Ans. (a)

21. In which of the following females have 45

chromosome number?

a. Down’s syndrome

b. Turners syndrome

c. Klinefelter’s Syndrome

d. Immuno deficiency syndrome

Correct Ans. (b)

CHAPTER 11

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is present in the

chemical composition of DNA

a. Sulphur

b. Phosphours

c. Lodine

d. Potassium

Correct Ans. (b)

2. Which of the following is absent in the

virus proteins?

a. sulphur

b. phosphours

c. nitrogen

d. carbon

Correct Ans. (b)

3. DNA is formed of units called:

a. nucleotides

b. glucose

c. amino acids

d. fatty acids

Correct Ans. (a)

4. Which of the following is not the chemical

component of a nucleotide of DNA?

a. Deoxyribose sugar

b. Phosphate group

c. Nitrogenous base

d. Amino acid

Correct Ans. (d)

5. The different types nitrogenous based

which from different nucleotides are:

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 7 Correct Ans. (b)

6. Which of the following nitrogenous bases

is absent in the nucleotides of DNA?

a. Thymine

b. Adenine

c. Uracil

d. Cytosine

Correct Ans. (c)

7. Which of the following different types of

nucleotides form DNA molecule?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Correct Ans. (c)

8. According to Waston and Crick model of

DNA, each molecule is made up of

a. one strand

b. two strands which run parallel

c. two strands which twist around

each other

d. three stands

Correct Ans. (c)

9. The two strands of DNA molecule are held

together by weak:

a. hydrogen bonds

b. Carbon bonds

c. Lonic bonds

d. Oxygen bonds

Correct Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following proved

conclusively that DNA is the genetic material?

a. Waston and Crick

b. Griffith

c. Hershey and Chase

d. Laderburg and Tatum

Correct Ans. (c)

11. The 5-Carbon sugar in RNA molecule is:

a. Deoxyribose

b. Ribose

c. Glucose

d. Fructose

Correct Ans. (b)

12. In the RNA molecule nitrogenous base

Uracil is substituted for:

a. cytosine

b. adenine

c. guanine

d. thymine

Correct Ans. (d)

13. Genetic information in a DNA molecule is

coded in:

a. sequence of nucleotides

b. base pairings

c. proportion of each base present

d. the turning pattern of the helix

Correct Ans. (a)

14. The two strands of double helix model of

DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds

between.

a. Sugar and phosphate groups

b. Sugar and nitrogenous bases

c. Phosphate groups and nitrogenous

bases

d. Nitrogenous bases

Correct Ans. (d)

15. The number of cytosine bases in a DNA

molecule.

a. is equal to the number of uracil

bases

b. is equal to the number of guanine

bases

c. is equal to the number of adenine

bases

d. cannot be predicted

Correct Ans. (b)

16. In a double helix-model of DNA, the

distance between two base pairs is:

a. 0.034 nm

b. 0.34 nm

c. 3.4 nm

d. 34 nm

Correct Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following bring a particular

amino acid to a particular specified place?

a. tRNA

b. mRNA

c. rRNA

d. DNA

Correct Ans. (a)

18. The code for specifying amino acid

consists of

a. one base

b. two base

c. three bases

d. four bases

Correct Ans. (c)

19. Which of the following is genetic code for

methionine?

a. UGG

b. UCG

c. GUA

d. AUG

Correct Ans. (d)

20. Beadle and Tatum in their experiments on

genetics in 1941, used the

a. bacteriophase

b. bacteria

c. Neurospora

d. Rhizopus

Correct Ans. (c)

21. Which of the following is true of

Neurospora?

a. It is an autotroph

b. Is a parasite

c. Can grow in minimal medium

d. Black bread mold

Correct Ans. (c)

22. Which is the following is present in place

of glutamic acid in sickle cell trait?

a. bases

b. sugars

c. phosphate

d. groups

e. fatty acids

Correct Ans. (c)

23. Instructions for the order of amino acids in

a polypeptide chain are coded along a

DNA strand into the sequence of:

a. bases

b. sugars

c. phosphate groups

d. fatty acids

Correct Ans. (a)

24. The enzyme which is used to break open

the plasmid ring is called:

a. recombinant enzyme

b. restriction enzyme

c. reductase enzyme

d. carboxylase enzyme

Correct Ans. (b)

25. Of the 64 codons, how may code for

amino acids?

a. 20

b. 22

c. 40

d. 61

Correct Ans. (d)

26. About how much of the DNA in a

eukayotic cell is expressed at any one time?

a. 1 percent

b. 20 percent

c. 50 percent

d. 80 percent

Correct Ans. (a)

27. The function of mRNA is to

a. provide specific binding sites for a

series of specific tRNA molecule.

b. Hold a group of ribosomes together

c. Transfer the genetic code to rRNA

d. Transfer the genetic code to DNA

Correct Ans. (a)

28. The function of tRNA is to

a. form a site for protein synthesis

b. transcribe the genetic code

c. transport specific amino acids to

specific sites on the mRNA

d. synthesize amino acids

Correct Ans. (c)

29. Which of the following unwound double

helix of DNA during replication?

a. DNA ligase

b. Primase

c. DNA polymerase

d. Helicase

Correct Ans. (d)

CHAPTER 12

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Which of the following is the age of the

earth according to the scientific belief?

a. one million years

b. 5 million years

c. 6 billion years

d. 15 billion years

Correct Ans. (c)

2. Variations in the living organisms are:

a. absent

b. of two kinds

c. of three kinds

d. of four kinds

Correct Ans. (b)

3. Which of the following is true of a

population?

a. all individuals are exactly alike

b. 50% individuals are exactly alike

c. 10% of individuals are exactly

alike

d. no two individuals are exactly alike

Correct Ans. (d)

4. Paramecium divides

a. three times a day

b. ten times a day

c. after three days

d. after ten days

Correct Ans. (a)

5. During one breeding season a code fish

lays

a. one egg

b. hundred eggs

c. thousand eggs

d. million of eggs

Correct Ans. (d)

6. Elephants begin to breed at age of

a. six months

b. six years

c. thirty years

d. fifty years

Correct Ans. (c)

7. Elephants are considered to one of the

a. slowest breeders among vertebrates

b. fastest breeders among vertebrates

c. slowest breeders among

invertebrate

d. Fastest breeders among

invertebrate

Correct Ans. (a)

8. Organisms fully adapted to their

environment

a. will gradually perish

b. can not survive

c. have low survival chances

d. have high survival chances

Correct Ans. (d)

9. Organs that serve no apparent purpose are

called

a. abortive

b. vestigial

c. reproductive

d. degenerative

Correct Ans. (b)

10. Which of the following is the vestigial

organ in human body?

a. nose

b. radius

c. ear muscle

d. humerus

Correct Ans. (c)

11. Different sorts of remains of organisms

that live in the past era are called:

a. microorganisms

b. fossils

c. birds

d. horses

Correct Ans. (b)

12. Which of the following has greatest

diversity of living things?

a. palearctic

b. nearctic

c. Australian

d. Ethiopian

Correct Ans. (d)

13. Which of these show an unusual fauna and

flora?

a. Ethiopian

b. Palearctic

c. Neotropical

d. Nearctic

Correct Ans. (c)

14. In which of the following the spread of

fauna and flora has often been greatly

limited by the harshness of the climate?

a. Oriental

b. Nearctic

c. Ethiopian

d. Australian

Correct Ans. (b)

15. It was observed in England that before

industrial expansion the colour of the

wings and bodies of the prevalent variety

of moth was

a. light

b. red

c. green

d. dark

Correct Ans. (a)

16. In heavy industrial areas the colours of

moth was changed to

a. yellow

b. green

c. brown

d. coal black

Correct Ans. (d)

17. The absence of lichens from tree trunks in

an area is an indication of

a. absence of pollution

b. presence of pollution

c. absence of industries

d. clear and pleasant air

Correct Ans. (b)

18. The gradual process of change that occurs

in populations of organisms over along

period of time, leading to the formation of

new species is called:

a. organic evolution

b. inorganic evolution

c. genetic drift

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 13

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Within a community living organisms:

a. interact with members of their own

species

b. Do not interact with members of

their own species

c. Do not interact with members of

other species

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a)

2. It is a group of populations of different

organisms living in the same area and

sharing the same resources:

a. community

b. Environment

c. Biome

d. Ecosystem

Correct Ans. (a)

3. It is a specific locality with particular set

of environment conditions where

organisms

a. Biome

b. Habitat

c. Atmosphere

d. Lithosphere

Correct Ans. (b)

4. Within the same habitat each organism has

definite functional position different from

other organisms. This is called:

a. Ecological Ecosystem

b. Ecological pyramid

c. Ecological Niche

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

5. Which of the following is recycled in a

balanced ecosystem?

a. Carbon, Nitrogen, energy

b. Hydrogen, energy, oxygen

c. Nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen

d. Energy, nitrogen, oxygen

Correct Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following ecosystems:

i. pond

ii. lake

iii. river

iv. dam

v. aquarium

Which of the following groups make

natural ecosystem?

a. I, II and IV

b. II, III and IV

c. I, III and V

d. I, II and III

Correct Ans. (d)

7. It is the ultimate source of energy for all

natural ecosystem:

a. food

b. producers

c. sunlight

d. water

Correct Ans. (c)

8. Most life in the biosphere functions within

the temperature range of:

a. 0---------- 50o C

b. 6---------- 50o C

c. 10---------- 50o C

d. 5---------- 50o C

Correct Ans. (a)

9. Cactus and Euphorbia have developed

thick cuticle to overcome the problem of:

a. very low temperature

b. excess of water

c. deficiency of loss of water

d. deficiency of minerals

Correct Ans. (c)

10. Flag form or one sided trees develop

under the influence of:

a. water deficiency

b. very low temperature

c. strong winds in one direction

d. intense sunlight

Correct Ans. (c)

11. Consider the following

I. CO2

II. O2

III. H2O

IV. N2

Which one of the following is used as raw

material by the green plants during

photosynthesis?

a. I & II

b. I & III

c. II & III

d. III & IV

Correct Ans. (b)

12. It brings sudden changes in the ecosystem:

a. Temperature

b. Soil

c. Fire

d. Topography

Correct Ans. (c)

13. The top soil is generally dark brown in

colour due to the presence of:

a. water

b. nitrogen

c. phosphorus

d. humus

Correct Ans. (d)

14. Which one of the following abiotic factors

has no direct influence on the organisms?

a. Topography

b. Temperature

c. Gravity

d. Radiations

Correct Ans. (a)

15. Atmospheric pressure and temperature are

two phenomena

a. both increase with increasing

altitude

b. both decreases with increasing

altitude

c. do not change with changing

altitude

d. pressure increases while

temperature decreases with

increasing altitude

Correct Ans. (b)

16. Following are some consumers:

a. Rabbits

b. Dog

c. Man

d. Insects

Correct Ans. (d)

17. Which of the following zones is beyond

the reach of light penetration?

a. Profundal

b. Limnetic

c. Littoral

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (a)

18. Freshwater habitats are divided into two

categories, standing water and running

water, oxygen concentration

a. Remains the same in both of these

regions

b. High in standing and low in

running water

c. Low in standing and high in

running water

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

19. To overcome the problems of thinness of

atmosphere and pull of gravity, land plants

have developed:

a. Thick corky bark in plants

b. Water storage tissues

c. Deeply penetrated root system

d. Supporting and strengthening

tissues

Correct Ans. (d)

20. In tropical rain forests annual rain falls:

a. Exceeds 2000 mm

b. Between 1000-2000 mm

c. Below 1000 mm

d. Exceeds 4000 mm

Correct Ans. (a)

21. Consider the following characters:

I. Decomposition of litter is quick

II. Growing season shrinks to 3 to 4

months

III. Forest is highly stratified

IV. Great diversity of trees

Which one of the following is the

characteristics of Tropical Rain forest?

a. I, II & III

b. I, III & IV

c. II, III & IV

d. I, II & IV

Correct Ans. (b)

22. Abundant evenly distributed rain fall and

moderate temperature are the

characteristics of:

a. Coniferous forests

b. Desert ecosystem

c. Temperate deciduous

forests

d. Tundra ecosystem

Correct Ans. (c)

23. In Pakistan taxus baccata, and berberis

lysium are the prominent trees found in:

a. Tundra ecosystem

b. Tropical rain forest

c. Coniferous alpine forest

d. Temperate deciduous forests

Correct Ans. (d)

24. It is characterized by long sever winters

and a constant cover a winter snow:

a. Coniferous alpine forests

b. Temperate deciduous forest

c. Tropical rain forest

d. Grasslands

Correct Ans. (a)

25. They are characterized by periodic and

often sever droughts:

a. Deserts

b. Grasslands

c. Tundra

d. Coniferous forests

Correct Ans. (a)

26. Unreliable and unevenly distributed less

than 250 mm annual rain fall are

characteristics of:

a. Tropics

b. Grasslands

c. Deserts

d. Savana

Correct Ans. (c)

27. Surface feeders are desert plants which:

a. grow on the surface

b. Spread over the surface

c. Have deep root system

d. Have shallow root system

Correct Ans. (d)

28. Cacti and Euphorbias naturally occur in:

a. Deserts

b. Grasslands

c. Savanna

d. Temperate deciduous forests

Correct Ans. (a)

29. Trees can not grow above timber line

because of:

a. Abundant water

b. Harsh environmental conditions

c. Deficiency of organic matter

d. Absence of sunlight

Correct Ans. (b)

30. Permafrost is characteristic of:

a. Coniferous Alpine forest

b. Coniferous boreal forests

c. Tundra ecosystem

d. Deserts

Correct Ans. (c)

31. The tundra of high altitude is called:

a. Arctic tundra

b. Antarctic tundra

c. Boreal Tundra

d. Alpine tundra

Correct Ans. (d)

32. Most of the plants ceases to grow at a

temperature below:

a. 6 oC

b. 10 oC

c. 15 oC

d. 20 oC

Correct Ans. (a)

33. A population is a group of

a. species in a community

b. communities in an ecosystem

c. individuals in a species

d. individuals in family

Correct Ans. (c)

34. An ecological community is an

assemblage of:

a. family units

b. food webs

c. interacting populations

d. closely related species

Correct Ans. (c)

35. Competition for light is more intense

among the plants of

a. tropical rain forests

b. temperate deciduous forests

c. coniferous alpine forests

d. coniferous boreal forests

Correct Ans. (a)

36. Most animals are tree dwellers in a

a. temperate deciduous forests

b. tropical rainforests

c. tropical deciduous forests

d. coniferous forest

Correct Ans. (b)

37. Epiphytes are most abundant in a

a. tropical rain forests

b. temperate deciduous forests

c. thorn woodland

d. scrubland

Correct Ans. (a)

38. Nights are cool in the desert because:

a. they dry air does not radiate much

heat to the earths surface

b. the elevation is always high

c. so much heat is absorbed by the

earth’s surface during the day

d. the air pressure is low

Correct Ans. (a)

39. Aquatic ecosystems cover approximately

how much of the earth’s surface?

a. 20%

b. 40%

c. 75%

d. 90%

Correct Ans. (c)

40. Which of the following is ecological zone

of shallow water is standing water

ecosystem?

a. Limnetic

b. Profundal

c. Pool

d. Littoral

Correct Ans. (d)

41. Which of the following is not recycled in

an ecosystem?

a. Nitrogen

b. Carbon

c. Energy

d. Hydrogen

Correct Ans. (c)

42. The amount of sunlight

a. does not affect plant growth

b. affects plant distribution

c. does not affect plant distribution

d. does not affect plant movements

Correct Ans. (b)

43. Which of the following plays a role in

brining variation in temperature?

a. amount of precipitation

b. distance from oceans

c. presence of forests

d. all of these

Correct Ans. (d)

44. Which of the following needs plenty of

water for its elimination from the animal

body?

a. uric acid

b. ammonia

c. carbon dioxide

d. oxygen

Correct Ans. (b)

45. Which of the following is not an important

gas in the atmosphere?

a. Nitrogen

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Oxygen

d. Sulphur dioxide

Correct Ans. (d)

46. Under the influence of strong winds at

high mountain, plants may develop

a. Flag form

b. Flowers

c. Food storing organs

d. Flattened leaves

Correct Ans. (a)

47. Which of the following is not true of the

top soil?

a. inhibited by plant roots and other

living organisms

b. containing no chemical substances

and is less fertile

c. approximately 10-20 cm in

thickness

d. is generally dark brown in colour

because of humus

Correct Ans. (b)

48. Which of the following is the most

constant abiotic factor of the environment?

a. water

b. gravity

c. temperature

d. soil

Correct Ans. (b)

49. Which of the following are the principal

primary consumers in an aquatic

ecosystem?

a. small crustaceans

b. insects

c. rodents

d. ruminants

Correct Ans. (a)

50. In which of the following life is most

conspicuous?

a. Limnetic zone

b. Littoral zone

c. Profundal zone

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (b)

51. Which of the following would be the case

in the absence of decomposers in an

ecosystem?

a. nutrients would be recycled

b. new life would be produced as a

usual

c. nutrients would remain tied up in

the dead bodies

d. ecosystem would run normally

Correct Ans. (c)

52. Which of the following is not true of

Limnetic zone?

a. open water body

b. presence of phytoplankton

c. lighted zone

d. presence of rooted plants

Correct Ans. (d)

53. As compared to standing water, oxygen

concentration in moving water is:

a. the same

b. low

c. high

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

54. Which of the following is the

characteristic of running water?

a. uneven distribution of oxygen

b. animal are not sensitive to organic

pollution

c. animals show narrow range of

tolerance

d. low supply of oxygen

Correct Ans. (c)

55. Running water habitat in streams is also

called:

a. lentic water

b. benthic

c. lotic water

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

56. In contrast to aquatic habitat, land habitat

for the organisms to inhabit is:

a. tough and harsh

b. easy

c. more favourable

d. not difficult

Correct Ans. (a)

57. The thick corky bark in plants act as a/an

a. storage tissue

b. insulting layer

c. meristematic tissue

d. water conducting tissue

Correct Ans. (b)

58. In which of the following, decomposition

of litter occurs quickly?

a. Coniferous alpine forest

b. temperate deciduous forest

c. alpine tundra

d. tropical rain forest

Correct Ans. (d)

59. There is distinct stratification of vegetation

and four layers in the forests are

recognized in:

a. arctic tundra

b. deserts

c. savanna

d. temperate deciduous forests

Correct Ans. (d)

60. In which of the following decomposition

of litter is slow and growing season

shrinks to 3 or 4 months?

a. tropical rain forests

b. deserts

c. coniferous alpine forest

d. temperate deciduous forests

Correct Ans. (c)

61. Humidity is always low in

a. alpine tundra

b. deserts

c. tropical rain forests

d. temperate deciduous forests

Correct Ans. (b)

62. Which of the following is not the character

of desert animals?

a. presence of sweat gland

b. presence of salt secreting glands

c. excretion of nitrogenous wastes in

the form concentrated urine

d. large ears

Correct Ans. (a)

63. The tundra of high altitude is called:

a. temperate tundra

b. arctic tundra

c. tropical tundra

d. alpine tundra

Correct Ans. (d)

64. Arrange the following in descending order

with regard to the annual amount of

rainfall, starting with the first that receive

maximum amount of rainfall and the last

with minimum amount.

a. temperate deciduous forest

b. deserts

c. grasslands

d. tropical rain forests

Correct Ans. (d-a-c-b)

65. Arrange the following ecosystem in

descending order in respect of the rate of

decomposition of organic matter (litter) on

the forest floor, starting from the one with

high rate of decomposition.

a. coniferous alpine forest

b. temperate deciduous forests

c. tropical rain forests

d. alpine tundra

Correct Ans. (c-b-a-d)

66. Epiphytes are more abundant in a:

a. temperate deciduous forests

b. deserts

c. tropical rain forest

d. grasslands

Correct Ans. (c)

67. All are abiotic factors except

a. animals

b. sunlight

c. air

d. soil

Correct Ans. (a)

CHAPTER 14

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. The killing of prey in large number in an

area:

a. increases predator population

b. balances the ecosystem

c. reduces the predator population

d. does not affect the predator

population

Correct Ans. (c)

2. A species in an area with out its natural

predator leads to:

a. Useful results

b. Disastrous results

c. Balances ecosystem

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

3. Roundworm and Plasmodium are example

of:

a. Symbionts

b. Endoparasites

c. Ectoparasites

d. Predators

Correct Ans. (b)

4. An interaction between two organisms in

which neither can survive without the

other is:

a. Predation

b. Parasitism

c. Commensalisms

d. Mutualism

Correct Ans. (d)

5. Mycorrhizae and lichens are examples of:

a. Mutualism

b. Commensalism

c. Grazing

d. Predation

Correct Ans. (a)

6. The final result of overgrazing is:

a. Green fields

b. More food

c. Barren fields

d. Pleasant weather

Correct Ans. (c)

7. The back of forth movements of chemical

elements between organisms and

environment is called:

a. Biological cycle

b. Biochemical cycle

c. Biogeochemical cycle

d. Biodiversity

Correct Ans. (c)

8. Consider the following:

I. CO2

II. Carbohydrates

III. Lipids

IV. Proteins

Which one of the following groups is used

by the animals as source of Carbon.

a. I, II & IV

b. I, III & IV

c. II, III & IV

d. I, II & III

Correct Ans. (c)

9. Nitrogen is vital to plants and animals for

the synthesis of:

a. Sucrose

b. Proteins

c. Fructose

d. Waxes

Correct Ans. (b)

10. Which of the following is the source of

soil nitrates?

a. Decomposition of cellulose

b. Decomposition of Lipids

c. Decomposition of Proteins

d. Decomposition of Glycogen and

starches

Correct Ans. (c)

11. Nitrification is the conversion of:

a. Nitrates into ammonia

b. Ammonia into nitrates

c. Nitrates into free nitrogen

d. Amino acids into ammonia

Correct Ans. (b)

12. Nitrosomonas converts:

a. Ammonia to nitrites

b. Ammonia to nitrates

c. Amino acids to ammonia

d. Ammonia to amino acids

Correct Ans. (a)

13. Nitrification takes place in:

a. Anaerobic condition

b. Aerobic Condition

c. Not affected by any of the above

conditions

d. All of these

Correct Ans. (b)

14. Which one of the following is concerned

with non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation?

a. Nitrobacter

b. Rhizobium

c. Closteridium

d. Nitrosomonas

Correct Ans. (c)

15. Denitrifying bacteria converts:

a. Nitrites into nitrates

b. Ammonia into nitrates

c. Free nitrogen into nitrates

d. Nitrates into free nitrogen

Correct Ans. (d)

16. Which of the following concerned with

denitrificaiton?

a. Pseudomonas

a. Nitrosomonas

b. Nitrobacter

c. Nostoc

Correct Ans. (a)

17. Consider the following:

I. Nitrification

II. Nitrogen fixation

III. Denitrification

IV. Thunderstorm

Which one of the following groups

increase soil fertility?

a. I, III & IV

b. I, II & IV

c. II, III & IV

d. I, II & III

Correct Ans. (b)

18. Energy flow in the ecosystem is:

a. Cyclic

b. Two directional

c. One directional

d. Not needed

Correct Ans. (c)

19. From the top carnivores energy is:

a. Passed to the herbivores

b. Recycled and passed on to the

producers

c. Passed to the consumers

d. Lost to the space in the form of

heat

Correct Ans. (d)

20. Of the total sunlight that strikes the green

plants, the amount absorbed by the

chlorophyll is about

a. one half

b. one third

c. two third

d. one fourth

Correct Ans. (a)

21. The amount of absorbed energy that is

used in photosynthesis and stored as

chemical energy of food is almost:

a. 20%

b. 25%

c. 35%

d. 50%

Correct Ans. (b)

22. At each step in the transfer of energy from

one organism to another, a large part of the

energy is:

a. Fixed

b. Utilized

c. Stored

d. Lost Correct Ans. (d)

23. Net primary productivity is determined by

the relative rates of:

a. photosynthesis

b. respiration

c. both a & b

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

24. Primary productivity is the production of

new organic matter at the

a. Consumers level

b. Producers level

c. Decomposers level

d. Herbivores level

Correct Ans. (b)

25. Energy and nutrients enter a community

by way of the

a. producers

b. consumers

c. scavengers

d. decomposers

Correct Ans. (a)

26. A group of interconnected food chains is

called a

a. pyramid of energy

b. complex food chain

c. food web

d. food cycle

Correct Ans. (c)

27. The rate of which light energy is converted

to the chemical energy of organic

molecules is the ecosystem’s

a. net primary productivity

b. gross primary productivity

c. net secondary productivity

d. gross secondary productivity

Correct Ans. (b)

28. About how much of the chemical energy

within producer tissues becomes chemical

energy within herbivore tissues?

a. 1%

b. 10%

c. 60%

d. 90%

Correct Ans. (b)

29. About how much of the absorbed light

energy by the green plants becomes

chemical energy within the producers

tissues?

a. 1%

b. 10%

c. 50%

d. 75%

Correct Ans. (b)

30. Arrange the following types of ecosystems

in terms of their net primary productivity

in descending order, starting with the one

being the most productive and last the least

productive?

a. Temperate deciduous forests

b. Deserts

c. Grasslands

d. Tropical rain forests

Correct Ans. (d-a-c-b)

31. Which of the following kingdoms contains

species that can fix nitrogen?

a. Fungi

b. Protista

c. Plantae

d. Monera

Correct Ans. (d)

32. Mutualism is an interaction between two

species in which

a. both are harmed

b. both benefit

c. one benefits and the other is neither

helped nor harmed

d. one benefits and the other is

harmed

Correct Ans. (b)

33. Match the following terms with their

definitions

a. ammonification 1. conversion of

atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into

nitrates

b. denitrificaiton 2. conversion of

organic nitrogen (in amino acids)

into ammonia

c. nitrification 3. conversion of nitrite

or nitrates into atmospheric

nitrogen

d. nitrogen fixation 4. conversion of

ammonium into nitrites and nitrate.

Correct Ans. (a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1)

34. From the top carnivores energy is:

a. transferred to the producers

b. transferred to the herbivores

c. available to the ecosystem and is

recycled

d. not available to the ecosystem

again but is lost to the space

Correct Ans. (d)

35. The nodule in a plant root, where nitrogenfixing

bacteria live, forms from cells of the

a. epidermis

b. cortex

c. endodermis

d. vascular cambium

Correct Ans. (b)

36. Bacteria that live in the nodules of pea and

beans belong to which of the following

genera?

a. Rhizobium

b. Closteridium

c. Pseudomonas

d. Nitrobacter

Correct Ans. (a)

37. Which of the following plants will enrich

the soil with nitrogen?

a. Corn

b. Wheat

c. Rice

d. Bean

Correct Ans. (d)

38. The carbon and hydrogen present in the

bodies of animals in the forms of various

compounds are released to the

environment during the processes of

a. photosynthesis

b. transpiration

c. respiration and decomposition

d. denitrificaiton

Correct Ans. (c)

CHAPTER 15

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. The concentration of CO2 in atmosphere

is:

a. 0.3%

b. 0.03%

c. 3.0%

d. 30.0%

Correct Ans. (b)

2. It is a poisonous gas and 1% of it in air can

kill a person in 5 minutes:

a. N2

b. CO2

c. CO

d. NO2

Correct Ans. (c)

3. CO is produced when fossil fuels are burnt

in air in the presence of limited supply of:

a. H2

b. CO2

c. N2

d. O2

Correct Ans. (d)

4. Green house effect is the result of:

a. Air pollution

b. Forestation

c. Ultra violet radiations

d. Water pollution

Correct Ans. (a)

5. Acid rains in the result of:

a. Clear air

b. Burning of fossil fuels

c. Forestation

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (b)

6. Stone cancer is caused by:

a. Bacteria

b. Virus

c. Acid Rain

d. Grazing

Correct Ans. (c)

7. Repeated crop production result in:

a. Increase in soil fertility

b. Decrease in soil fertility

c. Accumulation of more organic

matter

d. Increase in soil nutrients

Correct Ans. (b)

8. Which of the following groups of crops

grown continuously is not suitable?

a. Wheat, Pea and Corn

b. Corn, Pea and Rice

c. Wheat, Rice and Corn

d. Rice, Pea and Wheat

Correct Ans. (c)

9. The removal of surface soil by the action

of water or wind is called:

a. Soil depletion

b. Sod Bound

c. Pollution

d. Soil erosion

Correct Ans. (d)

10. Man cut down forests and has:

a. Disturbed native plants and native

animals

b. Contributed to the cleanliness of air

c. Produced good effects on natural

environment

d. Encouraged native plants and

animals

Correct Ans. (a)

11. Fossil fuels are:

a. Geothermal, Biomass and natural

gas

b. Ocean-thermal gradient, waves, oil

and tides

c. Coal, oil and natural gas

d. Coal, geothermal and oil

Correct Ans. (c)

12. Splitting of the nucleus of radioactive

atom releases:

a. Energy

b. Electricity

c. Water

d. Air

Correct Ans. (a)

13. The real problem and difficulties of

depending upon nuclear energy is that:

a. it is extremely expensive

b. it is exhaustible

c. it has environmental hazards

d. None of these

Correct Ans. (c)

14. An accident in a nuclear reactor at

Chernoble Nuclear Power Plant occurred

during 1986 in:

a. USA

b. USSR

c. China

d. Korea

Correct Ans. (b)

15. The average flow of solar energy per

square kilometer on earth’s surface is:

a. 80,000 Kilowatts

b. 180,000 kilowatts

c. 200,000 kilowatts

d. 280,000 kilowatts

Correct Ans. (b)

16. The digestion of organic wastes by

bacteria for the generation of energy is

termed:

a. Hydrogenation

b. Pyrolysis

c. Biodegradation

d. Bioconversion

Correct Ans. (c)

17. The recommended diet per day for an

average young man should contain:

a. 2400 calories

b. 1400 calories

c. 24000 calories

d. 3400 calories

Correct Ans. (a)

18. Minimum protein requirement for an

average adult is between:

a. 75 – 100 grams

b. 50 – 75 grams

c. 37 – 62 grams

d. 20 – 30 grams

Correct Ans. (c)

19. Protein deficiency in early childhood

mainly affects:

a. Bone formation

b. Learning capacity

c. Digestive system

d. Circulatory system

Correct Ans. (b)

20. Calcium deficient diet in early childhood

causes bones deformation which may lead

to disease called:

a. Leprosy

b. Tuberculosis

c. Rickets

d. Small Pox

Correct Ans. (c)

21. Which of the following groups is

infectious diseases?

a. Goiter, Small Pox and Tetanus

b. Tetanus, Measles and Diphtheria

c. Anemia, Small Pox and Pneumonia

d. Measles, Tuberculosis and Goiter

Correct Ans. (b)

22. Stresses and anxiety of fast life may

contribute to the development of:

a. Tuberculosis

b. Small pox

c. Pneumonia

d. Heart disease and blood pressure

Correct Ans. (d)

23. The first insecticide used on a large scale

was

a. 2, 4-D

b. DDT

c. Methane

d. Mercury

Correct Ans. (b)

24. The accumulation of carbon dioxide on

global scale tends to warm the air in the

lower level of the atmosphere. Which of

the following factor does not contribute to

this phenomenon?

a. heavy industrialization

b. urbanization

c. burning of fossil fuel

d. forestation

Correct Ans. (d)

25. Due to the repeated crop production in the

same soil, some nutrients are not returned

to the soil and as a result soil fertility is

reduced. This is called:

a. soil erosion

b. soil depletion

c. sod bound

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

26. As a result of destruction of natural habitat

of the living organisms by the activity of

man, these organisms, either die out or on

the verge of extinction. Therefore these

organisms are known to be the:

a. endangered species

b. cultivated species

c. hybrid species

d. expanding species

Correct Ans. (a)

27. Which of the following is advantage of the

hydro electric power as compared to other

sources of energy?

a. more expensive

b. hazardous

c. clean and pollution free

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (c)

28. The energy produced due to natural

radioactive decay in the earth’s core is called:

a. Ocean thermal gradient

b. Geothermal

c. Tidal power

d. Hydroelectric power

Correct Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following is the option

(possibility) before the biologists to be

used as human food in future?

a. farm industry’

b. seaweeds (kelps)

c. cigarettes industries

d. computer

Correct Ans. (b)

30. Which of the following is approximate rate

of child mortality in Pakistan due to

malnutrition ?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%

d. 40%

Correct Ans. (a)

31. The deficiency of which of these causes

anemia in man?

a. Ca

b. Iron

c. Na

d. Iodine

Correct Ans. (b)

32. The deficiency of iodine in the diet causes

malfunctioning of

a. salivary glands

b. liver

c. thyroid gland

d. pancreas

Correct Ans. (c)

33. Which of the following was totally

eradicated from the world by the year 1980?

a. tuberculosis

b. small pox

c. pneumonia

d. influenza

Correct Ans.

(b)

34. Which of the following is an infectious

disease?

a. tuberculosis

b. blood pressure

c. goiter

d. heart disease

Correct Ans. (a)

35. According to health reports, a smoker runs

a risk of reducing his/her life expectancy

for every cigarette he/she smokes by about

a. zero minutes

b. one minute

c. five minutes

d. 12 minutes

Correct Ans. (D)

CHAPTER 16

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. Responses built in nervous system as part

of animal’s inherited structure are termed:

a. Learning

b. Creative

c. Formative

d. Instinctive

Correct Ans. (d)

2. The tendency of young birds to fly in

flocks with integrated movement is termed:

a. Allelomimetic behaviour

b. Eliminative behaviour

c. Investigative behaviour

d. Agonistic behaviour

Correct Ans. (a)

3. Agonistic behaviour is the:

a. tendency to seek out optimum

environmental conditions

b. Fighting with the intruders

c. Making noises and holding their

heads up

d. The lifting out of the faces and

urine out of the nest by the parent

birds

Correct Ans. (b)

4. The modification of behaviour by previous

experience is called:

a. Ingestive behaviour

b. Learning behaviour

c. Digestive behaviour

d. Perceptive behaviour

Correct Ans. (b)

5. The response of animals to stimuli which

are rewarded is called:

a. Latent learning

b. Insight learning

c. Conditioned reflex type 1

d. Conditioned reflex type II

Correct Ans. (d)

6. Which of the following are organized into

a “peck order” or dominance hierarchy?

a. monkeys

b. hens

c. black birds

d. cats

Correct Ans. (b)

7. In which of the following there is a

tendency for the males to lead the flock?

a. sheep

b. monkeys

c. cats

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (b)

8. In which of the following there is a

tendency for the females to lead the flock?

a. sheep

b. howling monkeys

c. cats

d. none of these

Correct Ans. (a)

9. The young ones of precocial birds

a. can walk at hatching and do not

stay in the nest

b. needs sometime rest time at

hatching and cannot walk

c. can not walk without their real

mother

d. can not attaché themselves to any

other moving object

Correct Ans. (a)

10. Which of the following is true of the

howling monkeys?

a. males carry the young ones from

pace to place

b. the old males are very careful of

the young ones

c. the females carry the young ones                           

from place to place

d. the adult females fight with each

other

Correct Ans. (c)